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Suppose the spot price for Euro is $1.30, the futures price for delivery in 6 months is $ 1.29675. Assume that the 6 month borrowing/lending rate in Euro is 1.5 percent (annually, continuous compounding) and the corresponding rate in $ is 1.0 percent (annually, continuous compounding). (This is an FX application using the same cost of carry model).
a. Assume no transactions costs, do the above prices represent an arbitrage opportunity? Why?
b. What are the implied interest rates in Europe and the U.S.?
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