Action result in a deadweight loss, Macroeconomics

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The short-run supply of a certain crop is perfectly inelastic, because it has already been harvested and no more of it can be grown until the next growing season. In order to raise the price received by farmers, the government orders the destruction of a percentage of the harvest. Does this action result in a deadweight loss? Why or why not? Assume that the cost of distributing the crop to consumers is zero.

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