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Assignment:
The old definition of rape and the new definition has some key differences to point out. One key difference would be how inclusive the new definition is compared to the old definition. The new definition includes all genders as victims and perpetrators, whereas the old definition was only limited to females. The new definition also covers a broader range of non-consensual sexual acts, which include oral penetration and penetration with objects, whereas the old definition did not include these. And one more major difference is the fact that the new definition emphasizes the lack of consent rather than the use of force that the old definition implied. In my opinion, I believe that the definition was changed in order to provide more accurate and inclusive understandings of what's considered to be rape, without leaving anything out or for open interpretation.
1. Why do you agree?
2. Explain your thorough and thoughtful supporting statements with experiences?
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