Reference no: EM133867928

Q1: What adverse effect might limit a client's ability to tolerate zidovudine?

a) Bone Marrow Suppression

b) Diarrhea and nausea

c) hepatoxicity

d) hypertension

Q2: What client teaching is important to include for a client taking indinavir?

a) drink at least two litres of fluid daily

b) good adherence makes you non-infectious

c) report yellowing of the skin to their HCP

d) rotate SC injection sites each week

Q3: What must client taking carbamazepine avoid?

a) dairy products

b) carbonated beverages

c) high protein foods

d) grapefruit juice

Q4: What is an indication for the use of dicyclomine?

a) facilitation fo pupil dilation for eye exams

b) irritable bowel syndrome management

c) pre-operative reduction of secretions

d) spasm reduction for neurogenic bladder

Q5: Which action is associated with enfuvirtide?

a) inhibits virus entry into T-cells

b) Accelerates protease enzyme action

c) hinders viral DNA transcription

d) prevents virus attachment to T-cells

Q6: What is a contraindication for the use of phenobarbital in seizure management?

a) Liver disease

b) Heart disease

c) endocrine disease

d)vascular disease

Q7: What adverse effect would be expected during the observation of a client receiving IV amphotericin B?

a) fever

b) hypertension

c) bradycardia

d) delirium

Q8: What is the role fo raltegravir in the treatment of HV?

a) It hinders with the entry viral DNA into the cell's nucleus

b) it is an analogue that interfers with viral RNA sequence

c) it impedes the enzyme needed to make viral DNA from RNA

d) it inhibits creation of components needed for new viruses

Q9: A client is allergic to penicillin. which other drug might they also have a hypersensitivity to?

a) Tetracylines

b) Sulfonamides

c) Macrolides

d) cephalosporins

Q10: What information would be included when teaching a client who will receive oral nystatin?

a) Rinse with the solution for 30 seconds and then spit it out immediately

b) dilute the solution in a glass of juice and perform mouthcare after

c) swallow the solution and immediately follow with a large glass of water

d) swish the solution for at least 2 minutes , swallow and do not rinse

Q11: Which drug is an example for a classification whose mechanism of action involves alteration in cell wall synthesis?

a) Ciprofloxacin

b) Erythromycin

c) sulfamethoxazole

d) imipenem

Q12: A school -aged client with ADHD is prescribed methylphenidate and his caregiver wonders how this drug will help. how

a) it decreased sympathetic nervous system responses to produce calming effects

b) it stimulates the release and blocks reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine

c) it increases parasympathetic nervous system activity to reduce excitatory activity

d) it lowers excitatory neurotransmitters release to quiet overactive brain areas

Q13: Which drug group may have serious interactions when taken with certain antibiotics?

a) oral contraceptives

b) antiplatelet drugs

c) antidepressant drugs

d) antihypertensive drugs

Q14: Which medication would be used in a situation where a client is experiencing a severe overdose of atropine?

a) Physostigmine

b) Scopolamine

c) Glycopyrrolate

d) Bethanechol

Q15: An influenza outbreak was declared a long-term care facility. Post-exposure prophylaxis with oseltamivir was recommended for nurses who worked recently without wearing PPE what information is important to know about this drug?

a) it will decrease the severity of influenza symptoms

b) it must be shared within 48 hrs of symptom onset

c) it is only effective against strains of influenza A

d) it will not shorten the overall duration of illness

Q16: What classification of antibiotic drug is preferred for the treatment of urinary tract infection?

a) Aminoglycosides

b) Macrolides

c) Carbapenems

d) Quinolones

Q17: A client is taking ethosuximide. what is the indication for this drug?

a) absence seizures

b) Tonic-clonic seizures

c) Status epilepticus

d) focal seizures

Q18: The desired effects of cholinergic drugs come primarily from the stimulation of which receptors?

a) Adrenergic

b)Nicotinic

c) Muscarinic

d) Acetylcholinesterase

Q19: What information should be included in the client teaching when tetracycline has been prescribed?

a) Avoid exposure to direct sunlight

b) milk products increase drug absorption

c) Antiacids can taken for GI upset

d) Report ringing in the ears immediately

Q20: Which drug is known to interfere with bacterial synthesis of folic acid as part of its mechanism of action?

a) Doxycycline

b) Levofloxacin

c) Sulfamethoxazole

d) Azithromycin

Q21: A newly admitted client is prescribed edrophonium what is the reason this drug is used?

a) To treat urinary bladder retention

b) To reduce Alzheimer's symptoms

c) to diagnose myasthenia gravis

d) to improve GI motility post-operatively

Q22: What should the nurse keep in mind when administering phenytoin IV?

a) The client should be pre-medicated to reduce infusion syndrome

b) the infusion should be given rapidly to raise blood levels quickly

c) Normal saline is the only solution compatible with this drug

d) Vital signs must be monitored every 5 minutes during the infusion

Q23: Which manifestation is a common adverse effects of anticholinergic drugs?

a) diarrhea

b) hypotension

c) diaphoresis

d) dry mouth

Q24: What statement regarding antiepileptic drugs is correct?

a) medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach

b) a double dose can be taken if a dose is missed

c) caution may be needed with certain activities

d) Treatment can be stopped if seizure activity is reduced

Q25: What teaching is needed for a client who is prescribed topical acyclovir for genital herpes ( HSV-2)?

a) stop using once the lesion dry and crust over

b) wash your hands before and after applying

c) this drug will eliminate the herpes virus infection

d) sexual activity can be resumed using condoms

Q26: Which statement is correct regarding amantadine?

a) It stimulates dopamine production int e basal ganglia

b) it works by triggering stored dopamine to be released

c) it is precursor that is converted into dopamine in the brain

d) it reduces acetylcholine to improve the effects of dopamine

Q27: What precaution should be taken when administering IV vancomycin?

a) infuse through a central line

b) assess the client for seizure activity

c) monitor vital signs every 10 minutes

d) infuse over at least one honour

Q28: There are four generation cephalosporin drugs. how do these generations differ from each other?

a) By B-lactam resistance

b) by adverse effect profiles

c) by antimicrobial activity

d) by varying levels of toxicity

Q29: Why do some patients experience gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhea, when taking antibiotics?

a) Normal flora is affected by the drugs

b) Toxic levels of antibiotic drugs

c) supra infection related to the drugs

d) increased pH levels in the GI system

Q30: A client has tested positive for MRSA in a pressure ulcer. what drug would be most useful in this situaion?

a) penicillin

b) Clindamycin

c) Ciprofloxacin

d) vancomycin

Q31: What client teaching is needed when a new antiepileptic drug is prescribed?

a) oral contraceptives may become less effective

b) activities such as driving can be resumed in two weeks

c) insomnia and irritability should decrease in a few weeks

d) skin changes such as rash, do not need medical attention

Q32: What is the main action of drugs from the triazole drug class?

a) alters glucan synthesis

b) disrupts cellular metabolism

c) affects cholesterol synthesis

d) inhibits the P450 enzyme

Q33: Which classification of antibiotic has the broadest spectrum of coverage?

a) B-lactams

b) Aminoglycosides

c) Cephalosporins

d) Carbapenems

Q34: A client is receiving IV gentamycin. what finding would suggest an adverse drug-related effect is occuring?

a) Diarrhea and dizziness

b) Elevated BUN and Crea

c) Hypotension and Jaundice

d) Headache and nausea

Q35: What is the underlying mechanism of action of most antiviral drugs?

a) prevent virus entry into healthy cells

b) interfere with normal cellular metabolism

c) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis

d) alters the production of protein by the virus

Q36: What action is associated with donepezil?

a) it occupies and blocks acetylcholine receptors

b) it directly stimulates acetylcholine receptors

c) it directly increases the production of acetylcholine

d) it inhibits an enzyme to increase acetylcholine

Q37: Client was prescribed levodopa / carbidopa and is questioning why he needs both drugs what explanation is appropriate when explaining the rationale for this combination?

a) levodopa action becomes more prolonged

b) it helps more levodopa reach the brain

c) levodopa cannot enter the brain without it

d) it improves the effectiveness of levodopa

Q38: What is the rationale for infusing IV acyclovir over at least one hour?

a) prevents redman syndorme

b) decreases IV site thrombophlebitis

c) avoids rapid increased in drugs levels

d) reduces effects on the kidneys

Q39: Whcih drug is effective for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?

a) caspofungin

b) amphotericin B

c) fluconazole

d) voriconazole

Q40: Client is prescribed bethanechol what is the action of this drug?

a) it will increase bladder tone and motility

b) it will increase the bladder ability to retain urine

c) it will relax the bladder and tighten the sphincter

d) it will improve bladder sensation and emptying