Reference no: EM133249996
Questions
1. A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which of the following terms best describes this growth?
a. Meningioma
b. Hypertrophy
c. Lipoma
d. Malignant tumor
2. Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors?
a. Is well differentiated
b. Grows slowly
c. Cells vary in size and shape
d. Has a well-defined capsule
3. A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing?
a. Cancer in situ
b. Cancer beyond (meta) situ
c. Tumor in differentiation
d. Dysplastic
4. A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart?
a. Sarcoma
b. Lymphoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Carcinoma
5. A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage:
a. 1.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 2.
6. An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation. Which of the following is the oncologist describing?
a. Metastasis
b. Autonomy
c. Pleomorphic
d. Anaplasia
7. A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker. Which of the following could be a possible marker?
a. Red blood cells
b. Apoptotic cells
c. Enzymes
d. Neurotransmitters
8. A 52-year-old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer. Which of the following markers should be increased?
a. Homovanillic acid
b. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
c. Prostate-specific antigen
d. Catecholamines
9. Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate:
a. release of growth factors.
b. new blood vessel growth.
c. tumor regression.
d. apoptosis.
10. What is the effect of telomere caps on cancer cells?
a. Clonal distinction
b. Mutation abilities
c. Limited mitosis
d. Repeated divisions
11. Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a proto-oncogene? A proto-oncogene is best defined as a(n) _____ gene.
a. normal
b. tumor-suppressor
c. inactive
d. altered
12. Which genetic change causes alterations in only one or a few nucleotide bases?
a. Insertions
b. Point mutations
c. Amplification mutations
d. Deletions
13. A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?
a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Herpes virus
d. Rubella virus
14. A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. After 2 months, the virus is still active. Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?
a. B-cell lymphoma
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. T-cell leukemia
d. T-cell lipoma
15. A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain. Testing reveals a peptic ulcer. Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is of concern for this patient?
a. Adenocarcinoma of the colon
b. Gastric cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Leukemia
16. Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and:
a. lung tissue.
b. body cavities.
c. connective tissues.
d. lymphatics.
17. A nurse is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the nurse should give?
a. Hypercholesterolemia and leukemia
b. Pneumonia and lung cancer
c. Prostatic hypertrophy and prostate cancer
d. Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer
18. A patient asks when adjuvant chemotherapy is used. How should the nurse respond? Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment is used:
a. in cancer with little risk of metastasis.
b. before radiation therapy.
c. after surgical removal of a tumor.
d. as the primary treatment.
19. Brachytherapy is being used to treat cancer in a patient. What types of cancers respond well to brachytherapy? (select all that apply)
a. Neck
b. Head
c. Lung
d. Cervix
e. Prostate