Reference no: EM131570176

1. The concept of "human resource management" implies that employees are

A. a secondary component of a business.

B. troublesome and need to be monitored.

C. resources of the employer.

D. an unnecessary cost to an employer.

E. a rare component of the business world.

2. In the context of human resource management, human capital refers to the

A. wages, benefits, and other costs incurred in support of HR functions in an organization.

B. cash, equipment, technology, and facilities that an organization uses.

C. tax-deferred value of an employee's 401(k) plan.

D. organization's employees, which add economic value to the company.

E. total budget allocated to the HR department in an organization.

3. How do human resources professionals provide an organization with a sustainable competitive advantage?

A. They manage commonly available resources.

B. They help the organization do what competitors are doing.

C. They keep the organization focused on the short term.

D. They hire high-quality employees who provide a needed service as they perform many critical functions.

E. They hire employees who are very enthusiastic despite lacking job experience and training.

4. Which of the following is a responsibility that is specifically associated with the HR function of employee relations?

A. conducting attitude surveys

B. analyzing work

C. creating HR information systems

D. planning and forecasting human resources

E. creating a job design

5. Which of the following responsibilities is specifically associated with the HR function of support for strategy?

A. temporary labor recruitment and record keeping

B. human resource planning and forecasting

C. wage and salary administration

D. development of employee handbooks and company publications

E. development of an HR information system

6. Which of the following refers to the process of getting detailed information about jobs?

A. job rotation

B. supply chain management

C. job analysis

D. policy creation

E. job orientation

7. Which of the following best describes job design?

A. It is the process of defining the way work will be performed and the tasks that a given job requires.

B. It is the process of generating a pool of potential candidates for a job.

C. It is the process of identifying suitable candidates for jobs.

D. It is the technique of enabling employees to learn job-related knowledge, skills, and behavior.

E. It is the technique of presenting candidates with detailed information about a job.

8.Which of the following is responsible for the shift in the job trend, from the use of narrowly defined jobs to the use of broadly defined jobs in organizations?

A. emphasis on innovation and quality

B. increased demand for low skilled workers

C. increased focus on simplifying jobs

D. lack of competition

E. reduced use of team-based projects

9. Identify the process through which an organization seeks applicants for potential employment.

A. orientation

B. training

C. recruitment

D. work analysis

E. job design

10. Which of the following describes a planned effort to enable employees to learn job-related knowledge, skills, and behavior?

A. selection

B. performance appraisal

C. training

D. compensation

E. recruitment

11. The external labor market consists of

A. contract workers in the organization.

B. current employees of the organization.

C. individuals who are actively seeking employment.

D. employees who have direct contact with customers.

E. employees of the immediate competitors of the organization.

12. Identify the correct statement regarding the composition of the U.S. labor force during the projected 2014-2024 period.

A. The labor force is expected to grow at a greater rate than at any other time in U.S. history.

B. The largest proportion of the labor force is expected to be in the 16- to 25-year age group.

C. The segment of the workforce nearing retirement age will hold steady.

D. Despite a small increase in the number of young workers, the overall workforce will be aging.

E. The total workforce of the United States will considerably decrease.

13. Which of the following racial groups will form the majority of the U.S. labor force according to the 2014-2024 Employment Projections from the Bureau of Labor Statistics?

A. African Americans

B. Whites

C. Hispanics

D. Asians

E. Native Americans

14. In high-tech industries, such as computer software development, employers press the federal government for immigration laws that allow for a greater supply of foreign-born workers. What is the main reason these companies cite for that effort?

A. There is a lack of adequate technology in the United States.

B. Undocumented immigrants work harder than U.S. citizens.

C. Qualified technical workers are scarce in the United States.

D. U.S workers do not want this physically demanding work.

E. The size of the U.S. workforce is declining.

15. Managing cultural diversity involves

A. forming different pay structures for various groups.

B. creating separate career tracks for employees with families.

C. avoiding the use of affirmative action policies.

D. reducing cultural diversity by selective hiring.

E. encouraging career development for women and minorities.

16. Given the increasing use of computers to do routine tasks, which of the following skills is most likely to be actively sought by U.S. employers today?

A. physical strength

B. mastery of a particular piece of machinery

C. interpersonal skills

D. ability to perform routine tasks

E. ability to work with a tool

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of current-day high-performance work systems?

A. mismatches in technical system and social system

B. employee empowerment in decision making

C. increase in individual assignments

D. centralized decision making

E. reduced reliance on knowledge workers

18. The growth in e-commerce and the information economy has led to an increase in the demand for employees in

A. technical jobs.

B. mining and resource extraction.

C. agriculture.

D. service occupations.

E. manufacturing.

19. Which of the following statements is TRUE of employee empowerment?

A. Proper training must be provided only to supervisors so that they can exert their wider authority.

B. Managers should ensure that employees are not linked to resources outside the organization, such as customers.

C. Employee empowerment shifts the recruiting focus away from cognitive and interpersonal skills toward general technical skills.

D. Employee empowerment prevents holding employees accountable for the products and services they developed.

E. Jobs must be designed to give employees the necessary latitude for making a variety of decisions.

20. In what way does teamwork make work more significant?

A. It centralizes authority so workers do not have to make decisions.

B. Team members have less authority, so they can relax.

C. Teams get to work on fast-moving assembly lines.

D. Team members contribute to quality and assume many activities traditionally reserved for managers.

E. Teams spare employees from having to work directly with customers.

21. Alyssa thinks that her company is discriminating against a particular group of employees by denying them seniority or promotions. She expresses her concern to a senior human resources manager. This method of expressing concern about an instance of illegal employment through proper channels is known as _____.

A. opposition

B. retaliation

C. participation in a proceeding

D. discrimination

E. affirmative action

22. Which of the following represents an act of participation in a proceeding?

A. removing a whistleblower from employment

B. implementing affirmative action measures

C. expressing dissatisfaction over employment casually

D. retaliating against a whistleblower

E. testifying in an investigation

23. Which of the following refers to an organization's active effort to find opportunities to hire or promote people in a particular group?

A. affirmative action

B. disparate impact

C. reasonable accommodation

D. reverse discrimination

E. adverse impact

24. The Americans with Disabilities Act protects individuals who

A. are obese.

B. are severely disfigured.

C. engage in substance abuse.

D. are left-handed.

E. are nearsighted.

25. A _____ refers to an agreement between the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and an organization that the organization will cease certain discriminatory practices and possibly institute additional affirmative-action practices to rectify its history of discrimination.

A. trust agreement

B. good faith bargaining

C. consent decree

D. letter of indemnity

E. judicial estoppel

26. Differing conduct toward individuals, where the differences are clearly based on the individuals' race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, or disability status is termed as _____.

A. sexual discrimination

B. affirmative action

C. disparate treatment

D. reasonable accommodation

E. reverse discrimination

27. Identify the case in which disparate treatment is considered legal.

A. In a particular retail outlet, male workers are employed to handle the sales.

B. In an electrical company, male workers are exclusively employed to work as electricians.

C. In a vehicle manufacturing company, male workers are exclusively employed in all departments.

D. In a certain shopping mall, female workers are exclusively employed to clean the women's restroom.

E. In a particular hospital, only female nurses are appointed.

28. Which of the following statements is TRUE of a bona fide occupational qualification?

A. it is considered illegal by a court

B. it is a necessary qualification for a job

C. it is strictly prohibited by organizations

D. it is a preferred qualification for the job

E. it is used to deem disparate treatment illegal

29. Identify the type of case where most of the debate focuses on discriminatory consequences and the plaintiff need not prove an employer's intent to discriminate.

A. disparate impact

B. disparate treatment

C. reasonable accommodation

D. affirmative action

E. corrective action

30. Which of the following actions by employers can result in reverse discrimination?

A. affirmative action

B. reasonable accommodation

C. disparate treatment

D. retaliation

E. disparate impact

31. Which of the following processes involves analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service?

A. ergonomics

B. work flow design

C. utilization analysis

D. Industrial engineering

E. break-even analysis

32. In the context of work flow design, which of the following best describes a position?

A. the set of duties performed by a person

B. a set of related duties fulfilled by many employees

C. an aggregate of similar jobs

D. the set of skills and abilities that is required of a person in a job

E. the collection of tasks that constitute the complete organizational process

33. A list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails is called a _____.

A. job evaluation

B. job description

C. utilization analysis

D. conjoint analysis

E. job standardization

A job description is a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities (TDRs) that a job entails. TDRs are observable actions.

34. What is a basic difference between job specifications and job descriptions?

A. Job specifications define tasks, and job descriptions define responsibilities.

B. Job specifications list observable actions, and job descriptions describe general qualities.

C. Job specifications look at a job's activities, and job descriptions look at the qualities needed to do the job.

D. Job descriptions define tasks, and job specifications define responsibilities.

E. Job descriptions look at a job's activities, and job specifications look at the qualities needed to do the job.

35. Information from observers should be used as a supplement to information from incumbents. Identify the statement that is most likely to support this argument.

A. Incumbents are a logical source of information; however, they may not be able to provide precise information.

B. Incumbents provide accurate estimates of the importance of job duties, whereas supervisors provide accurate information about the time spent on safety-related risk factors.

C. Incumbents provide accurate information, but they may have an incentive to exaggerate what they do to appear more valuable to the organization.

D. Depending on external job analysts to supplement incumbents' information could be risky due to the relative inexperience of the analysts involved.

E. Information provided by observers who look for a match between what incumbents are doing and what they are supposed to do may be unreliable.

36. Which of the following HR activities is similar to analyzing a job that does not yet exist?

A. human resource planning

B. performance appraisal

C. job evaluation

D. work redesign

E. selection

37. Which of the following best defines a competency?

A. It is the set of duties performed by a particular team.

B. It is the list of tasks, duties, and responsibilities (TDRs) that a particular job entails.

C. It is a set of related duties for accomplishing work.

D. It is the activity that a work unit's members engage in to produce a given output.

E. It is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform successfully.

38. The industrial engineering approach is most likely to emphasize _____.

A. defining work arrangements and reporting requirements

B. streamlining jobs to make them simpler and more efficient

C. designing jobs in such a way that they require minimal specialization

D. exploring new and diverse ways of doing the same job

E. creating complex and challenging jobs that require innovative employees

39. According to the Job Characteristics Model, which of the following best describes task identity?

A. the extent to which a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved

B. the degree to which a job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work will be carried out

C. the extent to which a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself

D. the degree to which a job requires completing a "whole" piece of work from beginning to end

E. the extent to which a job has an important impact on the lives of other people

40. Which of the following is the first step in the human resource planning process?

A. forecasting

B. goal setting

C. program implementation

D. program evaluation

E. performance evaluation

41. Identify a benefit of applying statistical forecasting methods.

A. They are particularly useful in dynamic environments.

B. Under the right conditions, they provide predictions that are much more precise than a human forecaster's subjective judgment.

C. They are particularly useful in predicting important events that have no historical precedent.

D. They are invariably better than the "best guesses" of experts.

E. They can be used by organizations as a substitute for relying on the subjective judgments of experts.

42. In the context of forecasting the demand for labor, using trend analysis, inventory levels, changes in technology, and actions of competitors are examples of _____.

A. leading indicators

B. performance indicators

C. coincident pointers

D. transitional matrices

E. functional pointers

43. The second step in human resource planning is _____.

A. forecasting labor shortage

B. forecasting labor surplus

C. goal setting and strategic planning

D. program implementation and evaluation

E. program goal setting

44. Identify the similarity between the natural attrition and early retirement strategies for reducing a labor surplus.

A. Both strategies yield slow results for an organization.

B. Both strategies cause high suffering to the employees of an organization.

C. Both strategies can be applied for preventing labor shortages.

D. Both strategies are expensive to implement.

E. Both strategies encourage layoffs.

45. Identify the similarity between the outsourcing and overtime strategies for avoiding a labor shortage.

A. Both strategies yield slow results.

B. Both strategies have high revocability.

C. Both strategies are expensive to implement.

D. Both strategies involve contracting with another organization to perform a broad set of services.

E. Both strategies can be used for reducing labor surplus.

46. Identify the correct statement regarding downsizing.

A. Downsizing improves long-term organizational effectiveness.

B. The negative effect of downsizing is especially low among firms that engage in high-involvement work practices.

C. Downsizing often disrupts the social networks through which people are creative and flexible.

D. The negative impact of downsizing is especially low for those organizations that emphasize research and development.

E. Downsizing campaigns only eliminate people who are replaceable.

47. Which of the following is a step a downsized company can take to counter negative employee emotions?

A. demonstrate that the employees that were downsized deserved it

B. build confidence in the company's plans for a stronger future

C. show the organization's commitment to its management

D. encourage employees to work harder, increasing their value and thus keeping them with the company longer

E. pursue a commitment to the customers over a commitment to the community

48. Which of the following are the most widespread methods for eliminating labor shortages?

A. downsizing and merging with other organizations

B. hiring temporary workers and outsourcing work

C. retrained transfers and turnover reduction

D. overtime and new external hires

E. overtime and retrained transfers

49. Identify a disadvantage of using temporary and contract workers.

A. Revocability of this method is more difficult than other methods of avoiding labor shortage.

B. These kinds of workers cannot be hired through an agency.

C. These methods are a relatively slow solution to labor shortage.

D. These workers tend to be less committed to an organization.

E. These workers work well in key jobs, but not in those jobs that supplement permanent employees.

50. In most organizations, the first step in the personnel selection process is

A. verifying the applicants' qualifications through reference and background checks.

B. negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits.

C. screening the applications to see which ones meet the basic requirements for the job.

D. administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates' abilities.

E. inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews.

51. A strategic approach to selection requires ways to measure the effectiveness of selection tools. According to your text, which of the following is a basic standard for this?

A. The method can be personally relatable.

B. The method will highlight invalid information.

C. The information provided will always be specific to the candidates applying.

D. The method offers practical value.

E. The legality of the selection criteria depends on which country the measurement is performed.

52. The _____ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error.

A. reliability

B. validity

C. generalizability

D. utility

E. verifiability

53. What does a correlation of 0 mean?

A. a negative correlation

B. a positive correlation

C. a correlation where one number goes up and the other goes down

D. no correlation at all

E. an error in the correlation coefficients

54. Reliability answers the important question of

A. whether you are measuring something accurately.

B. whether you are measuring something that matters.

C. how you are measuring correlation coefficients.

D. how many errors something can achieve while still being considered useful.

E. intelligence in employees.

55. The ____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which the test scores relate to actual job performance.

A. reliability

B. validity

C. generalizability

D. utility

E. dependability

56. The consistency between test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur in a job is known as _____.

A. predictive validity

B. content validity

C. concurrent validity

D. diagnostic validity

E. construct validity

57. For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills, validity would best be established by _____ validation.

A. criterion-related

B. content

C. concurrent

D. construct

E. predictive

58. A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is known as a(n) _____ method.

A. practical

B. generalizable

C. reliable

D. invalid

E. concurrent

59. According to your text, selection methods should accurately predict how well individuals perform, and they should

A. produce information that actually benefits the organization.

B. not cost the company a great deal of money.

C. all be applicable to many different roles in many different locations.

D. only be applicable to the company where they are being used.

E. only be used on current employees with leadership aspirations.

60. Which of the following consists of an organization's planned effort to help employees acquire job-related knowledge, skills, abilities, and behaviors?

A. attrition

B. benchmarking

C. training

D. compensation

E. recruitment

61. _____ refers to a process of systematically developing training to meet specified needs.

A. Role-play

B. Recruitment

C. Simulation

D. Instructional design

E. Organization analysis

62. Ensuring that employees are ready for training in terms of their attitudes, motivation, basic skills, and work environment is the _____ step of the instructional design process.

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

E. fifth

63. Which of the following best describes a learning management system?

A. a team of trainers and human resource professionals who are responsible for planning and conducting the training programs in an organization

B. the process of evaluating the organization, individual employees, and employees' tasks to determine what kinds of training, if any, are necessary

C. a software application that automates the administration, development, and delivery of training programs

D. a process for determining the appropriateness of training by evaluating the characteristics of the organization

E. the process of determining individuals' needs and readiness for training

64. Which of the following best describes needs assessment?

A. It is the process of evaluating the organization, individual employees, and employees' tasks to determine what kinds of training are necessary.

B. It is a combination of employee characteristics and positive work environment that permit training.

C. It is a process that evaluates the monetary needs of employees that will motivate them to undertake a training program.

D. It is an application that automates the administration and delivery of a company's training program.

E. It is the process to determine employees' characteristics to ensure their readiness for training.

65. Organization analysis looks at training needs in light of the

A. readiness of employees for training.

B. employee's strategy toward achieving organizational goals.

C. management's support for training activities.

D. monetary incentives the management has promised its employees.

E. severance package deal for a particular batch of employees.

66. According to your text, managers will be most likely to support training if

A. there are no other solutions available for them to try.

B. it is not overly expensive.

C. it will solve a significant problem.

D. they do not have to participate in it.

E. it will result in minor improvements.

67. Which of the following questions can be answered by performing a person analysis?

A. What are the tasks that require more training?

B. How will the training be carried out?

C. Are employees ready for training?

D. Does the organization have the infrastructure to support training?

E. Are there any impediments to implementing a training program?

68. In a person analysis, which of the following is a primary variable that can be affected by training?

A. the organization's input

B. performance feedback

C. the employee's ability

D. positive consequences to motivate good performance

E. the employee's motivation

69. Which of the following processes identifies the knowledge, skills, and behaviors that should be emphasized by training?

A. person analysis

B. task analysis

C. transactional analysis

D. trend analysis

E. regression analysis

70. Managers provide for _____, a combination of formal education, job experiences, relationships, and assessment of personality and abilities to help employees prepare for the future of their careers.

A. emotional development

B. training programs

C. employee development

D. counseling sessions

E. feedback

71. _____ increases an employee's ability to move into jobs that may not yet exist.

A. Development

B. Qualification

C. Physical appearance

D. Personal background

E. Ethnic culture

72. Which of the following is true of the relationship between training and development?

A. Training is future oriented, while development is focused on one's experiences in the past.

B. Training prepares employees for management careers, while development is for learning entry-level skills.

C. Participation in training is voluntary, but most organizations require participation in development activities.

D. The goal of training is preparation for the current job, while the goal of development is preparation for future job opportunities.

E. Training is often an ongoing process, while development tends to be a short-term process.

73. A(n) _____ is a career that frequently changes based on changes in a person's interests, abilities, and values and in the work environment.

A. prescribed career

B. stable career

C. flexible career

D. established career

E. protean career

74. _____ helps employees select development activities that prepare them to meet their career goals.

A. Career path

B. Training

C. Policy analysis

D. Job sharing

E. Career management

75. The four general approaches that companies use for employee development include

A. formal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships.

B. job rotation, promotion, transfer, and job sharing.

C. psychological tests, assessment centers, the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, and performance feedback.

D. business games, formal courses, team building, and assessment.

E. total quality management, Six Sigma, lean manufacturing, and quality function deployment.

76. Which of the following is true of formal education as an approach to employee development?

A. Organizations organize formal educational programs at the workplace or off-site to support employee development.

B. Formal education includes organization-specific workshops that are open to outsiders as well as employees.

C. As a prerequisite to formal education, trainees must enroll in various courses offered by an organization.

D. Formal education includes presentations sent out by an organization, which enlist the ethics and policies educating employees from time to time.

E. In an organization, formal education involves collating data pertaining to the development of projects.

77. The process of collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behavior, communication style, or skills is known as _____.

A. requirements analysis

B. data mining

C. assessment

D. counseling

E. quality check

78. For assessment to work efficiently, an employee must be

A. provided suggestions to improve his or her weak skills.

B. evaluated discreetly so the employee does not pretend to be a model employee.

C. present on the day the assessment occurs so that results of the feedback will be accurate.

D. employed at the organization for at least a year.

E. informed that an appraisal can take place at any time during the year.

79. The primary use of assessment centers is to identify

A. the employees who have the personality characteristics and skills needed for managerial positions.

B. the strengths and weaknesses of an organization.

C. the decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production.

D. the opportunities and threats to an organization.

E. the factors that inhibit group performance.