Reference no: EM132180546

1) Which of the following marketing management orientation, focuses primarily on improving efficiencies along the supply chain?
A) production concept
B) product concept
C) selling concept
D) marketing concept
E) societal marketing concept

2) Which of the following consumer products would likely be marketed using the selling concept?
A) laundry detergent
B) funeral services
C) chocolate bars
D) hair stylist services
E) computer tablets

3) FedEx offers its customers fast and reliable package delivery. When FedEx customers weigh these aforementioned benefits against the monetary and psychic costs of using the service, they are acting upon
A) loyalty
B) relationship marketing
C) customer-perceived value
D) social relationships
E) a societal marketing campaign

4) Henry Ford's philosophy was to perfect the Model-T so that its cost could be reduced further for increased consumer affordability. This reflects the
A) product concept
B) marketing concept
C) societal marketing concept
D) production concept
E) selling concept

5) In the BCG approach, ____ are high-share, high- growth businesses or products. They need heavy investment to finance rapid growth. When their growth slows down, they turn into
A) cash cows; stars
B) question marks; dogs
C) stars; question marks
D) stars; cash cows
E) dogs; cash cows

6) If Under Armour, the successful maker of moisture-wicking shirts and shorts, considered introducing a line of Under Armour fitness equipment, the company would be considering
A) marketing controls
B) market development
C) diversification
D) market penetration
E) product adaptation

7) The pharmaceuticals division of Omni Healthcare holds low market share in a high-growth market. In order to increase market share, managers may decide to ____.
A) hold the pharmaceuticals division's share
B) implement a harvest strategy
C) use money from a cash cow to promote the pharmaceuticals division
D) divest the SBU
E) diversify the pharmaceutical division

8) Michelin is in the process of doing a SWOT Analysis. Which of the following most accurately identifies a difference between a weakness and a threat in SWOT analysis?
A) Michelin is more able to change a threat than a weakness.
B) Michelin is more able to change a weakness than a threat.
C) Michelin can be more negatively affected by a weakness than by a threat.
D) Michelin can be more negatively affected by a threat than by a weakness.
E) Michelin can more easily identify threats than weaknesses.

9) In which of the following scenarios would high-pressure selling tactics typically be most advantageous for marketers?
A) selling situations with long-time customers
B) selling situations with new customers with a high likelihood of becoming repeat customers
C) selling situations with a company's most highly valued customers
D) one-time selling situations
E) selling situations with dissatisfied customers

10) Consumer advocates call for which of the following additional consumer rights?
A) The right to be protected from all marketing messages.
B) The right to be well informed about important product aspects.
C) The right to be protected against high prices.
D) The right to influence marketing practices.
E) The right to influence products.

11) What do most companies today focus on when it comes to protecting the environment?
A) investing heavily in pollution prevention
B) practicing product stewardship
C) developing a sustainable vision
D) investing heavily in environmental technology
E) biodegradability

12) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Bribery is illegal in Canada.
B) Kickbacks are illegal in Canada.
C) Different countries have different levels of corruption.
D) A Canadian company must lower its ethical standards to compete effectively in countries with low standards.
E) Worldwide bribery is a large "business," constituting over $1 trillion per year.

13) According to our conceptualization of marketing intermediaries, which of the following would likely be a marketing intermediary for Pepsi-Cola?
A) Pepsi's ad agency
B) Pepsi's sugar supplier
C) Pepsi's bank
D) Pepsi's marketing consultants
E) Pepsi's insurance companies

14) Which of the following is considered pan of a company's marketing intermediaries?
A) stockholders
B) government officials who may regulate the company's industry
C) media groups that may cover stories on the company
D) marketing services agencies
E) unions

15) Given the characteristics of Gen Xers, on which categories would a typical Gen Xer likely spend more than his Boomer and Millennial counterparts?
A) financial services
B) medicine
C) travel
D) cars
E) computers

16).Which of the following demographic groups has seen a percentage increase in the past 50 years?
A) households with children
B) households with tweens with full time jobs
C) households with teenagers working full time
D) single income households
E) "crowded nest" households (those aged 20-29 that live with their parents)

17) Of the following combinations, managers would be most likely to start with _____ research and later follow with ________ research.
A) exploratory; causal
B) descriptive; causal
C) descriptive; exploratory
D) causal; descriptive
E) causal; exploratory

18) Which of the following is true of ethnographic research?
A) It is conducted within traditional focus groups.
B) It provides a window into customers' unconscious actions and unexpressed needs and feelings.
C) It provides researchers with secondary data.
D) It is most popular in the service sector.
E) It is a research option when observation is not possible.

19) ABC Company has decided to use mail questionnaires to collect data. Management recognizes this method has the following advantage.
A) flexibility
B) speed of data collection
C) control of interviewer effects
D) response rate
E) control of subject

20) You generally need to ask three questions when developing a sampling plan. Which of the questions below is one of these three?
A) Who should be left out of the sample (sampling exclusion)?
B) now should we contact the sample (sampling approach)?
C) Why should respondents be selected (sampling justification)?
D) How should participants be chosen (sampling procedure)?
E) none of the above

21) Increasingly this group of consumers are making their voices heard in the political arena and the marketplace.
A) Aboriginal Canadians
B) African Canadians
C) French Canadians
D) mature Canadians
E) youth

22) According to Statistics Canada, by the year 2017 roughly _____ of the population will be a member of a visible minority.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
E) 50%

23) Brand personality is a mix of human traits attributed to a brand. Which of the following is one of the five brand personality traits discussed in your text?
A) sincerity
B) empathy
C) confidence
D) indecision
E) emotion

24) Among other factors, learning occurs through the interplay of which of the following two factors?
A) drives and stimuli
B) stimuli and status
C) status and dissonance behaviour
D) cues and status
E) reinforcement and dissonance behaviour

25) Marketers must be careful to guard against when using age and life cycle segmentation.
A) underestimating
B) stereotyping
C) traditional marketing
D) cultural bias
E) gender bias

26) To evaluate the different market segments your company is serving, You would look at which of the following factors?
A) consumer size ICA' of the follow
B) product grow
C) segment Structural attractiveness
d) company culture
E) company competitors

27) Which of the following is an extreme form of market segmentation?
A) segmented strategy
B) micromarketing
C) differentiated marketing
D) mass marketing
E) undifferentiated marketing

28) Once it has chosen a position, a company must take strong steps to deliver and communicate that Position to target consumer. Which of the following is necessarily needed for a company to support its positioning strategy?
A) The company's marketing, mix efforts must support the positioning strategy
B) Positioning the company calls for moving to more profitable locations.
C) Designing the marketing mix involves working out the strategic details of advertising.
D) The company's service personnel must be highly trained and provide superior service.
E) The company must outperform the competition first.

29) Which of the following is an extreme form of market segmentation?
A) segmented strategy
B) micromarketing
C) differentiated marketing
D) mass marketing
E) undifferentiated marketing

30) Which of the following is a drawback of local marketing?
A) It can drive up manufacturing agents.
B) It can drive up marketing costs by reducing economies of scale.
C) It can create logistics opportunities.
D) A brand's overall image will be enhanced through added variation.
E) Supporting technologies are not cost-effective.

31) Once it has chosen a position, a company must take strong steps to deliver and communicate that position to target consumers. Which of the following is necessarily needed for a company to support its positioning strategy?
A) The company marketing mix efforts must support the positioning strategy.
B) Positioning the company calls for moving to more profitable locations.
C) Designing the marketing mix involves working out the strategic details of advertising.
D) The company's service personnel must be highly trained and provide superior service.
E) The company must outperform the competition first.

32) Bob and Phyllis Cords own two retail stores, one in Nanaimo and one in Victoria. Though the cities are only 60 kilometers apart, the consumers at both stores are very different demographically. Bob and Phyllis alter the product offerings between both locations in an effort to cater to both demographic groups. This is an example of_____.
A) local marketing
B) psychographic segmentation
C) individual marketing
D) demographic segmentation
E) mass marketing

33) New World Releases is conducting a business analysis to determine which of the many new songs available to management should be released. Sales must be estimated before costs can be estimated. Which of the following did your text recommend for forecasting sales?
A) considering the history of market opinions
B) conducting surveys of competitors
C) considering the sales history of similar products and conducting surveys of market opinions
D) applying the PLC concept
E) none of the above

34) According to the authors, managers must accept the _______ of a product.
A) the research team
B) the product life cycle
C) the market segmentation
D) the boss
E) the idea generation

35) The _____ is a model that proposes that a "chasm" exists between early adopters of a product and the early majority.
A) innovation life cycle
B) technology adoption life cycle
C) product life cycle
D) diffusion cycle
E) marketing life cycle

36) Which of the following would lead to continued sales in the maturity stage of the PLC?
A) overcapacity of products in the market
B) modifying the marketing mix
C) strong management
D) more promotion
E) more spending

37) Which of the following internal professional membership organizations monitor product quality?
A) Society of Public Company
B) Society of Quality Management
C) Society of Consumer Assurance
D) Society of Quality Assurance
E) Society of Firm Management

38) Service providers must consider four special service characteristics when designing marketing programs. They are _____.
A) service intangibility, service heterogeneity, service inseparability, service variability
B) service inseparability, service heterogeneity, service intangibility, service variability
C) service perishability, service heterogeneity, service inseparability, service variability
D) service heterogeneity, service perishability, service inseparability, service intangibility
E) service variability, service intangibility, service inseparability, service perishability

39) Helene Curtis began to market shampoo for normal hair. In an attempt to increase profits and use excess market capacity, Helene Curtis then marketed shampoo for oily hair and colourtreated hair. This is an example of_______.
A) line filling
B) social marketing
C) a shopping product
D) an unsought product
E) people marketing

40) An example of service variability is that within a given Marriott hotel, one registration-desk employee may be cheerful and efficient, whereas another may be unpleasant and slow.
A) TRUE B) FALSE
41) Service inseparability means that the quality of services depends on when, where, and how it is provided.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

42) Which of the following best describes what a brand is?
A) a physical product
B) a specialty product
C) an SBU
D) a corporate identity
E) a concept

43) Which of the following is one of the main four consumer perception dimensions used by ad agency Young & Rubicam to measure brand strength?
A) brand differentiation
B) brand depth
C) brand valuation
D) brand equity
E) brand personality

44) The fundamental asset underlying brand equity is _______ the value of the customer relationships that the brand creates.
A) the customer mix
B) customer equity
C) line equity
D) Service variability
E) the service encounter

45) According to brand positioning theory, which of the following positions would likely resonate best with customers?
A) the chocolate bar with the most cocoa powder
B) the chocolate bar with the fewest calories
C) the chocolate that forges bonds of friendship
D) the chocolate bar that can break into 5 pieces
E) the thinnest chocolate bar

46) A company has four choices when it comes to developing brands. Which is definitely one of those choices?
A) line inversion
B) brand extension
C) multibrands
D) width and depth perception
E) international brands

47) Retailers and wholesalers who have created their own brands-such as Walmart's Great Value beverages and food products-are participating in co-branding.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

48) Which of the following presents the strongest reason that markup pricing is generally illogical?
A) Sellers earn a fair return on their investment.
B) By tying the price to cost, sellers simplify pricing.
C) When all firms in the industry use this pricing method, prices tend to be similar.
D) This method ignores demand.
E) With a standard markup, consumers know when they are being overcharged.

49) Which of the following is the opposite of FOB-origin pricing?
A) basing-point pricing
B) absorption pricing
C) uniform-delivered pricing
D) freight-absorption pricing
E) zone pricing

50) In a monopolistic competitive market, a company might decide to_____ if only one competitor raises its prices.
A) reduce its production costs
B) reduce its marketing costs
C) maintain its current price and profit margin
D) increase its marketing budget to raise the perceived value of its product
E) increase its production costs to improve the quality of the product

51) Market-skimming is a more popular strategy for pricing new products, while market-penetration is a more popular strategy for pricing products that are more advanced in the product life cycle.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

52) If Northwest Awnings charges the same price for delivery of their product to any customer that is located Within the Great Lakes states, the company is using _______.
A) Psychological pricing
B) promotional pricing
C) reference pricing
D) zone pricing
E) uniform delivered pricing

53) Market-skimming Pricing would likely be most effective in selling _____.
A) any convenience item
B) an electronic device for which research and development must be recouped
C) shampoo and bath soap
D) anything easily copied by competitors
E) most items at EDLP retailers such as Walmart

54) In a logistics system, minimizing distribution costs most likely involves ________.
A) flexible assortments
B) large shipping lots
C) rapid delivery
D) large inventories
E) liberal return policies

55) Mintel Agro provides raw materials in the form of agricultural products to Kiltmark Food Company. Kiltmark produces flour-based edible products, which it distributes to a Trading company called Yellowstar Trading. Yellowstar Trading then sells Kiltmark products to the discount retailer, Stroos. Stroos sells the products to consumers. Which of the following is considered a marketing intermediary in these transactions?
A) only Kiltmark
B) only Stroos
C) only Yellowstar Trading
D) both Yellowstar Trading and Stroos
E) both Stroos and Mintel Agro

56) Kevin Pinker is a freelance electrical engineer who writes computer algorithms for companies such as SoftStar and BlueHill. SoftStar and Bluel-lill use these algorithms to make specific programs based on online market research. These programs are then sold to the online retailer, Abundon, which then sells them to individual consumers and businesses. Which of the following is a marketing intermediary in this chain?
A) SoftStar
B) BlueHill
C) the consumer
D) Abundon
E) Kevin Pinker

57) Dian loves branded apparel and accessories but cannot afford to buy them too often. Fortunately, Dina lives close to an off-price retail store that is owned and operated by a famous brand, The company utilizes this store to sell its surplus, discontinued, or irregular goods at significantly lower costs. The retail store is best referred to as a ______.
A) category killer
B) factory outlet
C) specialty store
D) superstore
E) power centre

58) Barry's is a chain of retail stores that stocks a large variety of goods and practices high-low pricing. This means that Barry's is likely to _______.
A) have low volume and low markups
B) charge low prices constantly
C) offer numerous sales or discounts
D) compete on the basis of price rather than product or service quality
E) use predatory pricing to eliminate competition

59) A _____ refers to a group of retail businesses built on a site that is planned, developed, owned, and managed as a unit.
A) pop-up store
B) shopping centre
C) warehouse
D) category killer
E) convenience store

60) Carleese, a leading fashion brand, sets up small temporary boutiques across numerous locations during its year-end sale, promoting its outdated products at half the price. These temporary boutiques are referred to as ________.
A) power centres
B) franchises
C) shopping centres
D) pop-up stores
E) category killers

61) Wayne Wholesaling fulfills many channel functions for its customers. The company mainly focuses on helping retailers to train their salespeople, improve store layouts, and set up inventory control systems. Based on this description, which channel function is provided by Wayne Wholesaling?
A) buying and assortment building
B) selling and promoting
C) risk bearing services
D) market information services
E) management services and advice

62) PennyLane Retailers believe in a do-it-yourself approach, and their stores are designed for consumers who are willing to perform their own locate-compare-select process. PennyLane is an example of a full-service retailer.
1) TRUE B) FALSE

63) Department stores carry narrow product lines with deep assortments within those lines.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

64) Venns is a chain of department stores that has become more focused in recent years and now stocks only exclusive labels of designer home accessories. Venns has transformed itself into a chain of pop-up stores.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

65) Convenience stores are much larger than regular supermarkets and offer a large assortment of routinely purchased food products, nonfood items, and services.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

66) Which of the following is a factor in the changes occurring in today's marketing communications?
A) Mass markets have consolidated, and marketers are shifting towards mass marketing.
B) Improvements in communication technologies are changing how companies and customers communicate with each other.
C) Companies sometimes invest millions of dollars in the mass media.
D) Mass media no longer capture the majority of promotional budgets.
E) Consumers tend to make rash decision based on impulse.

67) After determining its advertising objectives, the company's next step in developing an advertising program is to ______.
A) set its advertising budget
B) evaluate ad campaigns
C) develop an ad strategy
D) make message decisions
E) make media decisions

68) Which of the following are the three characteristics an advertising appeal should have?
A) engaging, informative, and stylish
B) trendy, compelling, and appealing
C) meaningful, believable, and distinctive
D) unique, emotional, and entertaining
E) humorous, memorable, and interesting

69) In selecting media vehicles, the planner must balance media costs against several media effectiveness factors. First, the planner should evaluate the media vehicle's
A) audience quality
B) audience attention
C) editorial quality
D) market coverage
E) pass-along audience

70) You are looking to advertise your new product, and you want good mass-marketing coverage and low cost per exposure. You should choose ______ as your advertising media.
A) newspaper
B) radio
C) outdoor
D) television
E) direct mail

71) Weekend advertisements for Rona encourage consumers to visit the store immediately. Rona is practicing reminder advertising.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

72) The percentage-of-sales method of setting an advertising budget wrongly treats sales as a cause of promotion rather as a result.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

73) The objective-and-task method of setting a promotion budget is the most logical method because it forces management to articulate its assumptions about the relationship between dollars spent and promotion results.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

74) Of the following, which is the least creative sales position?
A) order taker
B) order getter
C) account executive
D) account development rep
E) outside salesperson

75) Which one of the following do members of a sales force typically represent?
A) They represent the company to competitors.
B) They represent the company to investors.
C) They represent the customer to the company.
D) They represent the company to industry.
E) They represent the goods they sell.

76) A company can unite its marketing and sales functions through many activities. Which is the least likely to be effective?
A) assigning a telemarketer the task of visiting a customer
B) arranging joint meetings to clarify all aspects of communication
C) appointing a chief customer officer to oversee both departments
D) having a salesperson preview ads and sales-promotion campaigns
E) sending brand managers on sales calls with a salesperson

77) Your inside sales force is responsible for prospecting and qualifying customers. Which of the following will likely occur?
A) The number of qualified customers will exceed the number of prospects.
B) The outside sales force will call on all prospects.
C) A salesperson may have to approach many qualified customers just to make one sale.
D) Your inside sales force will attend meetings with qualified customers.
E) The inside sales force will be telemarketing.

78) Sales management at Noble Printing is planning a training program to improve the performance of its sales force. Which of the following should definitely be included in the training sessions?
A) tests to identify the personality traits of members of the sales force
B) tests to measure the analytic and organizational skills of the sales force
C) information about the marketing strategies used by other printing companies
D) time-and-duty analysis for each salesperson
E) instruction on completing expense reports

79) At Garden and Deck Decor, a manufacturer of outdoor furniture objectives and accessories, the marketing and sales force objectives are to grow relationships with existing outdoor while at the same time acquiring new business. Which of the following sales compensation force compensation plans is most likely to encourage the sales force to pursue both of these objectives?
A) straight salary
B) straight commission
c) salary plus bonus for customer satisfaction
D) commission plus bonus for new accounts
E) Salary plus commission plus bonus for new accounts

80) Which of the following is an advantage of a well-designed and targeted telemarketing plan?
A) purchasing convenience
B) emotional connections with customers
C) real-time merchandising
D) high recruitment and referral rate
E) almost limitless merchandise available to customers

81) Which of the following has been limited in recent years by the implementation of the National Do-Not-Call Registry?
A) telemarketing by nonprofit groups
B) business-to-business telemarketing
C) unsolicited outbound telephone marketing by businesses
D) inbound telephone marketing
E) telemarketing by politicians

82) How has the National Do Not Call Registry changed the telemarketing industry?
A) Telemarketing for nonprofit groups has become nonexistent.
B) Telemarketing is no longer used by small and medium sized companies.
C) Telemarketing has replaced direct mail and personal selling because of low costs.
D) Telemarketers are more effectively developing relationships with new customers.
E) Telemarketers are developing opt-in calling systems.

83) A 30-minute television advertising program marketing a single product is called a(n)
A) telemarketing advertisement
B) infomercial
C) home shopping channel
D) integrated marketing advertisement
E) direct-response commercial

84) Organic Designs is a small, successful chain of stores offering stylish clothes made of all-organic materials for infants, toddlers, and young children. Most of the Organic Designs stores are located in urban areas. Now Organic designs is considering using direct marketing to reach potential customers who live outside of the company's existing markets, with the goal of creating emotional connections and long-term relationships with a new group of customers. Which of the following methods of direct marketing would likely be most effective in accomplishing this goal?
A) direct-mail marketing
B) telephone marketing
C) catalogue marketing
D) direct-response television marketing
E) podcast marketing

85) When it comes to web browsing, and shopping, most people prefer substance over style.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

86) Branded community websites is the exact same thing as a marketing website.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

87) Online advertising appears while consumers are browsing online.
A) TRUE B) FALSE

88) Montano Boutiques promotes its brand in new international markets by providing rights to local boutiques to use its patented designs and brand name. In this case, Montano Boutiques' market-entering strategy is referred to as _____.
A) licensing
B) exporting
C) joint ownership
D) contract manufacturing
E) management contracting

89) Which of the following is a disadvantage of licensing?
A) The licensing company gains entry into a foreign market at a high risk.
B) It takes a lot of time for the licensee to gain production expertise and name.
C) Licensing is a complex way for a manufacturer to enter international marketing.
D) The licensor potentially creates a competitor in the form of the licensee.
E) The licensee is restricted from gaining knowledge about the licensor's intellectual property.

90) Which of the following is most likely a drawback of contract manufacturing?
A) There are low chances of quickly starting the process.
B) There is decreased control over the manufacturing process.
C) There are significant political and economic risks involved.
D) There is little opportunity of later forming a partnership.
E) There is no possibility of buying out the local manufacturer.