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Which of these two methods is better: discounting the Equity Cash Flow or discounting the Free Cash Flow?
The results we get by discounting the Equity Cash Flow and the Free Cash Flow are identical (or else, one or both of the valuations are incorrect). Personally, discounting Equity Cash Flows is better than discounting the Free Cash Flow (I find the flow and the discount rate more intuitive). I also like to balance this valuation with the APV
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Under this approach of Valuation, all cash flows are discounted using single interest rate (discount rate). For example: Consider the 5-year (7.00 percent) Treas
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