Why is the sample r alone sufficient for adequate

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1. Why is the sample r alone sufficient for adequate interpretation when the sample size is quite large (say over 300 or 400 cases), whereas an interval estimate is recommended for smaller samples?

2. For a sample of her 10 students, an instructor correlates "test anxiety" (X) with "percent correct" (Y) on the recent midterm. The data are as follows:

1572_test anxiety.png

(a) Would the Pearson r be an appropriate measure of association for these data? (Explain.)

(b) What would be the statistical consequence of computing Pearson r from these data? (No calculations necessary.)

Reference no: EM131866660

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