Reference no: EM131222242

QUESTION 1. Most burglary laws increase the severity of the crime of burglary if the burglar possesses

A. burglary tools.

B. explosives or a weapon.

C. gloves

D. police radio scanners.

QUESTION 2. Burglary elements include the unlawful entry of a structure to commit

A. any crime.

B. a felony or theft.

C. gloves.

D. police radio scanners.

QUESTION 3. Breaking and entering is a form of which type of evidence?

A. presumptive

B. circumstantial

C. physical

D. inadmissible

QUESTION 4. A primary element of the crime of possession of burglary tools is

A. none of these choices.

B. both of these choices.

C. possession of any tool that could be used to commit burglary.

D. an intent to use a tool or permit its use to commit burglary.

QUESTION 5. The term target hardening refers to

A. accepting that fact that burglaries happen in all parts of the world.

B. altering physical characteristics of a property to make it less vulnerable.

C. taking out additional insurance to cover losses in the event of a burglary.

D. none of these choices.

QUESTION 6. Thieves who go around neighborhoods targeting mailboxes with their flags up, searching for envelopes containing checks and other forms of payment, are referred to as

A. taggers

B. flaggers

C. flagellators

D. grabbers

QUESTION 7. Theft may include all but which of the following?

A. petty theft

B. crimes against the person

C. grand theft

D. Larceny

QUESTION 8. In larceny/theft, what determines whether the offense is grand or petty?

A. the amount

B. a judge

C. a jury

D. the physical evidence

QUESTION 9. Which of the following is not an element in check fraud?

A. forgery

B. issuing worthless checks

C. issuing insufficient-fund checks

D. using an access device

QUESTION 10. The third and final step of the money laundering cycle is

A. integration

B. placement

C. structuring

D. layering

QUESTION 11. Which of the following is a type of physical evidence that officers should search for in a vehicle theft case?

A. latent prints

B. accident damage

C. evidence that rake and pick guns were used

D. all of these choices

QUESTION 12. A possible indication of a stolen vehicle might include which of the following?

A. a single plate on a car that requires two plates

B. dirty plates on a clean car

C. a sloppily applied dealer's sticker

D. all of these choices
 
QUESTION 13. Transporting a stolen vehicle across state lines is a violation of what act?

A. Harrison Act

B. Wickersham Act

C. Mann Act

D. Dyer Act

QUESTION 14. The elements of motor vehicle theft are

A. intentionally taking or driving a motor vehicle without the consent of the owner or the owner's authorized agent.

B. taking a motor vehicle from the owner with the intent to sell or remove the vehicle.

C. taking an automobile with the intent to sell the automobile.

D. joyriding for pleasure or for criminal activity.
 
QUESTION 15. Motor vehicle thefts are often associated with

A. organized crime rings.

B. joyriding, transportation, commission of another crime, stripping vehicles for parts and accessories or reselling vehicles for profit.

C. cars, trucks, construction equipment and even recreational equipment.

D. carjacking, robbery, getaway cars and car bombings.

QUESTION 16. Alligatoring is

A. the checking of charred wood.

B. the formation of irregular cracks in glass due to heat.

C. the charring of just the surface of wood.

D. a sure sign of arson.

QUESTION 17. he fire triangle consists of which of the following three elements?

A. oxygen, fire and heat

B. fuel, heat and warmth

C. wood, warmth and fire

D. air, fuel and heat

QUESTION 18. Blue smoke results from the burning of which of the following?

A. alcohol

B. vegetable compounds

C. sulfur or nitric acid

D. none of these choices

QUESTION 19. Crazing is

A. the checking of charred wood.

B. the formation of irregular cracks in glass due to heat.

C. how deeply the wood is burned.

D. burnt glass.
 
QUESTION 20. The purpose of the law enforcement officer in an arson investigation is to

A. support the fire officer with the investigation.

B. provide protection for the fire officer.

C. assist with the criminal investigation.

D. work cooperatively with the fire officer to handle the criminal part of the investigation.
 
QUESTION 21. Yellow or brownish smoke results from the burning of which of the following?

A. alcohol

B. petroleum

C. sulfur, nitric acid or hydrochloric acid

D. drugs
 
QUESTION 22. Which of the following is not one of the five classes of explosive incidents in the United States?

A. terrorist or extreme activity

B. emotionally disturbed persons

C. revenge and/or protest

D. recovered military ordnance or commercial explosives
 
QUESTION 23. A zombie is a

A. certain type of computer virus.

B. computer that has been rendered immobile by a virus.

C. computer used by hackers to copy other computer programs.

D. computer that has been taken over by another computer.

QUESTION 24. A secretly attached program that monitors a computer system and waits for an error to occur so that the weakness may be exploited is called a

A. shadow bomb.

B. logic bomb.

C. super-program.

D. turtle
 
QUESTION 25. The USA PATRIOT Act, signed by President George W. Bush in 2001, grants

A. roving authority to the FBI and other law enforcement agents to serve orders on communications carriers.

B. total authority to the FBI for wiretapping the communication lines of any U.S. citizen.

C. total authority to the FBI to arrest any noncitizen who is under suspicion of using communication lines to plan a terrorist attack.

D. all of these choices.
 
QUESTION 26. Intentionally destroying computer information, programs or hardware using a logic bomb is classified as

A. embezzlement

B. espionage

C. extortion

D. sabotage
 
QUESTION 27. The biggest difference between traditional evidence and computer evidence is the latter's

A. electronic nature.

B. lack of availability.

C. storage on discs.

D. fragility
 
QUESTION 28. In a drug investigation, officers can avoid charges of entrapment by

A. having a third party buy the drugs.

B. making two or more buys.

C. making an immediate arrest that is witnessed.

D. using marked buy money.
 
QUESTION 29. Which of the following is not a distinctive characteristic of organized crime?

A. high-profit and continued-profit crimes

B. definite organization and control

C. strong ideological foundation

D. protection through corruption

QUESTION 30. Which of the following crime networks has been called the fastest-growing criminal organization in the United States?

A. the Triads

B. the LCN

C. Eurasian Organized Crime (EOC)

D. the Mexican Mafia

QUESTION 31. What act did the federal government pass in 1914 that made the sale or use of certain drugs illegal?

A. the Sullivan Act

B. the Mann Act

C. the Harrison Narcotics Act

D. the Little Lindbergh Law

QUESTION 32. The RICO Act of 1970 is one of the major federal acts that

A. make it permissible to use circumstantial rather than direct evidence to enforce conspiracy violations.

B. aim to stop the flow of drugs.

C. make it easier for prosecutors to charge and convict those apprehended in the sale of illegal drugs.

D. make the use of pen registers legal in the investigation of criminal networks.

QUESTION 33. Which of the following is not one of the four groups that make up the Mafia?

A. the Neopolitan Camorra

B. the Sacra Corona Unita

C. the Fratelli Gambino

D. the ‘Ndrangheta Mafia

QUESTION 34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a street gang, as opposed to a drug gang?

A. small structure

B. loose leadership

C. controlled competition

D. narrow age range

QUESTION 35. A flash mob is an example of

A. gang behavior that is atypical because it involves a large portion of the gang at the same time.

B. swarming.

C. illegal gang activity.

D. all of these choices.

QUESTION 36. The three-pronged approach to address the gang problem uses a balance of which three strategies?

A. intervention, motivation and suppression

B. prevention, intervention and suppression

C. intervention, transition and motivation

D. penetration, suppression and prevention

QUESTION 37. Which of the following is one of the models used to explain the relationship between gangs and crime?

A. enhancement model

B. aggravation model

C. criminal model

D. professional model

QUESTION 38. Which of the following would not be one of the signs of a ritualistic homicide?

A. missing body parts such as heart, genitals, left hand, tongue, index finger

B. urine or human or animal feces smeared on body or found in body cavities

C. wax drippings, oils, incense or ritual powders on the body

D. missing clothing

QUESTION 39. What was the decision in the U.S. Supreme Court's 2003 case, Virginia v. Black?

A. It upheld all hate crime legislation.

B. It upheld a Virginia law banning cross burning, saying the statute did not violate the First Amendment.

C. It struck down a Virginia law banning cross burning, saying the statute violated the First Amendment.

D. It ruled that any hate crime legislation would always be too "broad," and thus unconstitutional.

QUESTION 40. Which of the following is not an example of a cult discussed in the text?

A. Hare Krishna

B. NRM

C. Branch Davidians

D. 666

QUESTION 41. What type of evidence tends to show innocence of the accused and must be disclosed?

A. expectoratory

B. exculpatory

C. excruciating

D. excoriating

QUESTION 42. Once a report is written, the writer should

A. staple the pages together if it is more than one page, and file it.

B. evaluate it.

C. immediately show it to the prosecutor for approval.

D. give a copy to both the prosecution and defense.

QUESTION 43. Which of the following is inadmissible for an officer to make in court?

A. statements including obscenity or vulgarity

B. statements about the defendant's behavior at the time of arrest

C. statements about the defendant's criminal record

D. none of these choices
 
QUESTION 44. The Brady rule grew out of a landmark Supreme Court case that relates to the

A. well of evidence.

B. discovery process.

C. rule on witnesses.

D. cross-examination.

QUESTION 45. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Defense attorneys will try to impeach the testimony of prosecution witnesses.

B. An officer who mishandles his or her testimony in court can be impeached from the investigation.

C. Any witness moving through the well can automatically be impeached by the judge.

D. A witness in court will be impeached if he or she does not look directly at the jury when testifying.

QUESTION 46. The term PC (probable cause) is needed in which report?

A. crime report

B. arrest report

C. forensic report

D. rough notes

QUESTION 47. Officers should not write reports in the

A. past tense.

B. passive voice.

C. active voice.

D. first person.
 
QUESTION 48. Investigative reports are read by many people and used for many purposes. Which of the following is not an example of how a report would typically be used?

A. Plan for future law enforcement services.

B. Compile statistics on crime in a given jurisdiction.

C. Provide information to insurance investigators.

D. Convey information to the victim or the victim's family.

QUESTION 49. Which of the following is true of writing completed in the active voice?

A. The subject does not take any action.

B. The subject of the sentence performs the actions.

C. The sentences are active in terms of the reader.

D. Exact quotations are always used.

QUESTION 50. One benefit of a well-written report is that it can

A. reduce legal liability for the officer and the department.

B. enhance an officer's career.

C. make a positive impact on a prosecutor's case.

D. all of these choices.