Reference no: EM131436565

Assignment

Q1. Jason is a British freelance journalist working in Paris, so he is most likely classified as a(n. ________.
a. local
b. expatriate
c. third-country national
d. home-country national

Q2. A major challenge for international businesses is the need to adapt personnel policies and procedures to the differences among countries.
a. True
b. False

Q3. Appropriately compensating employees is difficult for small businesses because of the lack of access to salary surveys.
a. True
b. False

Q4. Elliot owns a catering business and employs 30 people. Elliot is uncertain about when to pay overtime and how to calculate overtime wages. The Web site of which of the following would be the most useful to Elliot?
a. Office of Personnel Management
b. Department of Labor
c. Department of Commerce
d. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

Q5. Which of the following is a true statement regarding SIMPLE IRAs?
a. SIMPLE IRAS require employees to make contributions each month.
b. Employer contributions to SIMPLE IRAS are not tax deductible.
c. Employers usually handle the IRS paperwork for SIMPLE IRAs.
d. SIMPLE IRAs have low administrative costs.

Q6. At most small businesses, human resource management activities can best be described as ________.
a. formal and standardized
b. informal and flexible
c. competitive and brief
d. nonexistent

Q7. Which of the following terms refers to interrelated components working together to collect, process, store, and disseminate information to support a firm's human resource management activities?
a. transaction-processing system
b. high-performance work system
c. human resource information system
d. electronic performance support system

Q8. Although employer contributions to SIMPLE IRAS are tax deductible, the plans have fairly high administrative costs.
a. True
b. False

Q9. Which of the following is a characteristic of a PEO?
a. PEOs become co-employers of record for the firm's employees.
b. PEOs usually work for firms with at least 100 employees.
c. Most PEOs charge 8% to 10% of a firm's total payroll.
d. PEOs are legally limited to payroll tasks.

Q10. Small business owners can contract with private vendors for training workers, testing applicants, appraising employees.
a. True
b. False

Q11. Which government agency enforces the standards set out in the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
a. Department of Health and Human Services
b. Department of Agriculture
c. Department of Commerce
d. Department of Labor

Q12. Matthew, an electrician at Carver Industries, cut his hand while splicing wires. Matthew received first aid treatment before returning to work. Carver Industries is required by OSHA to report Matthew's injury.
a. True
b. False

Q13. Experts suggest that burnout can most effectively be reduced by ________.
a. telecommuting
b. taking long vacations
c. changing careers
d. reassessing goals

Q14. Centerline Communications wants to reduce the number of workplace accidents associated with employee substance abuse. Which of the following would be the most effective method to accomplish this goal?
a. preemployment drug testing
b. preemployment psychological screening
c. a combination of random ongoing drug testing with psychological evaluations
d. a combination of preemployment drug testing and random ongoing drug testing

Q15. OSHA's standards are vague which has made them difficult to enforce.
a. True
b. False

Q16. Which of the following is a true statement regarding workplace smoking?
a. Workplace smoking rules are determined by local unions and federal laws.
b. OSHA requires employers to establish designated smoking areas.
c. Employers may dismiss workers because they smoke at home.
d. The ADA protects the rights of workers to smoke at work.

Q17. Toyota uses cadmium pigments in the paint for its cars. At the Toyota plant, air samples are frequently taken as a precautionary measure to ensure that employees are not exposed to levels outside the OSHA safety standards. Which of the following best describes this situation?
a. job simulation tests
b. unsafe conditions
c. industrial hygiene
d. screening

Q18. According to the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers are responsible for ________.
a. transferring workers who are cited for OSHA violations
b. examining workplace conditions for OSHA compliance
c. scheduling annual consultations with OSHA representatives
d. replacing old equipment on an annual basis to comply with OSHA

Q19. ________ is "the process of assessing exposures to loss within an operation and determining how best to eliminate, manage or otherwise reduce the risk of an adverse event from having a negative impact on the business."
a. Workplace safety
b. Security
c. Crisis management
d. Risk management

Q20. People who are impulsive and highly extroverted tend to be accident prone.
a. True
b. False

Q21. Which of the following best defines "termination at will"?
a. employees can refuse to collaborate with specific co-workers for personal reasons
b. either the employer or the employee can end the employment relationship at any time
c. employers can deny employees' requests for vacation and leave for any reason
d. customers can end relationships with service providers for any reason at any time

Q22. According to surveys, which of the following is the primary cause of ethical compromises in the work place?
a. feeling peer pressure
b. meeting schedule pressures
c. advancing a boss' career interests
d. advancing personal career interests

Q23. Based on research into ethical behavior in the workplace, which of the following is a true statement?
a. offering rewards for ethical behavior supports the intrinsic nature of personal ethics
b. punishing unethical behavior fails to alter the behavior of others in the workplace
c. managers significantly influence the ethical behavior of their subordinates
d. employees feel uncomfortable discussing ethics, so it should be avoided

Q24. When firms do not deal swiftly and fairly with the unethical behavior of employees, ethical employees feel penalized.
a. True
b. False

Q25. Which of the following terms refers to permanently dismissing a relatively large proportion of employees in an attempt to improve productivity and competitiveness?
a. bumping
b. outsourcing
c. downsizing
d. contracting

Q26. What tool does society use to ensure that employers act fairly and morally?
a. non-punitive discipline
b. social media outlets
c. public forums
d. legislation

Q27. In which organizational document are an organization's rules and regulations usually stated?
a. employee handbook
b. federal code of ethics
c. mission and vision statement
d. human resource policy manual

Q28. According to surveys, at work, fair treatment reflects concrete actions such as "Employees are treated with respect" and ________.
a. properly served
b. treated fairly
c. terminated
d. not abused

Q29. Which of the following is conducted with employees who are leaving a firm for the purpose of eliciting information about what is right or wrong with the job and the firm?
a. termination interview
b. screening interview
c. mass interview
d. exit interview

Q30. ________ are actions not done by accident but with a goal to cause harm.
a. Repetition
b. Imbalance of power
c. Intent to cause harm
d. Merit

Q31. The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire nonunion people, but those people must join the union within a prescribed period of time and pay dues.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
d. open shop

Q32. The union becomes the employees' representative if it receives ________.
a. a majority of the votes cast by the bargaining unit
b. signed authorization cards from 30% of employees
c. written approval from the employer
d. a majority of the votes cast

Q33. Jeff is a manager at a paper mill. He has received a grievance from a group of employees who are union members. The grievance claims that a plant rule barring employees from eating during unscheduled breaks is arbitrary and unfair. What should Jeff most likely do?
a. Discuss the case privately with the union steward.
b. Agree to make informal changes to the rules.
c. Examine the grievants' personnel records.
d. Make special arrangements with grievants.

Q34. The National Labor Relations Board was primarily established for the purpose of ________.
a. establishing branches in right-to-work states
b. negotiating contracts on behalf of local unions
c. investigating unfair labor practice charges
d. overseeing the establishment of local unions

Q35. What is the first step in the union drive process?
a. obtaining authorization cards from employees
b. making initial contact with employees
c. holding an initial organization hearing
d. campaigning for employee votes

Q36. Fact finding seeks to end an impasse by ________.
a. assisting the principals in reaching an agreement
b. studying the issues and making a public recommendation
c. interpreting and analyzing existing contract terms
d. communicating assessments of the likelihood of a strike

Q37. Which third-party intervention uses a neutral third party to assist the principals in reaching agreement?
a. fact finding
b. mediation
c. binding arbitration
d. non-binding arbitration

Q38. When representatives of Ford's management and autoworkers union meet to negotiate a labor agreement, which of the following is most likely occurring?
a. certification
b. union salting
c. featherbedding
d. collective bargaining

Q39. The term ________ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.
a. termination at will
b. right to work
c. open shop
d. free labor

Q40. Which of the following is an illegal bargaining item?
a. membership of bargaining team
b. discriminatory treatment
c. continuance of past contract
d. employment of strikebreaker

Q41. The Overseas Assignment Inventory is a test that identifies the characteristics and attitudes international assignment candidates should have based on norms.
a. True
b. False

Q42. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using expatriates to fill foreign subsidiary management positions?
a. high costs associated with relocation
b. time and effort required for training
c. inability to create short-term results
d. security concerns

Q43. Sara, who is originally from India, works in Texas for Dell as an IT manager. Dell, which has a localization policy, recently announced that management positions are available in its Bangalore, India facility. If Sara, who wants to return to India, is offered the Bangalore position, she would most likely be categorized as a ________.
a. commuter employee
b. independent contractor
c. third-country national
d. permanent transferee

Q44. Which of the following terms refers to the belief that home country attitudes, management style, knowledge, evaluation criteria, and managers are superior to anything the host country has to offer?
a. polycentric
b. ethnocentric
c. geocentric
d. monocentric

Q45. Which of the following terms refers to paying a portion of an expatriate's salary in home-country currency and a portion in local currency?
a. balance sheet approach
b. split pay approach
c. hardship premium
d. foreign-service premium

Q46. Of the types of international workers that multinational companies can employ, locals are best described as ________.
a. citizens of the countries where they are working
b. noncitizens of the countries in which they are working
c. citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters
d. noncitizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters

Q47. Which term refers to a group of geographically dispersed co-workers that uses a desktop videoconferencing system to communicate and accomplish tasks for the firm?
a. virtual team
b. telecommuter group
c. permanent transferee
d. short-term international team

Q48. Firms using a geocentric staffing model will seek the best people for key jobs throughout the organization, regardless of nationality.
a. True
b. False.