Reference no: EM13748855

Question 1

Which of the following is an example of a project?

a. Maintaining e-mail addresses

b. Capacity planning

c. Submitting travel and expense reports

d. Sending monthly reports to top management

Question 2

An effective project manager must:

a. Tell his team members what to do

b. Be the most capable person on the team technically

c. Be focused on achieving results

d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail

Question 3

A key characteristic of an effective project team is that:

a. Members have graduate degrees in project management

b. Members come from the same professional background

c. Members see themselves as stakeholders in the project

d. Members adhere to a prescribed pecking order

Question 4

A challenge of the matrix project organization is that:

a. Team members are full of ego

b. Team members are selected from the same functional area

c. Team members have divided loyalties

d. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers

Question 5

A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that:

a. It only focuses on things that can be measured

b. It takes time frame into consideration

c. It is too much based on subjective judgment

d. It does not entail prioritizing

Question 6

A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:

a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project

b. Show how many resources will be used on the project

c. Show the interdependencies of tasks

d. Show actual versus planned schedule status

Question 7

If you want to shorten the length of a project, you must:

a. Shorten the critical path

b. Shorten the free float

c. Spend more money

d. Cut back on the features you plan to deliver

Question 8

The critical path:

a. Provides the duration of a project

b. Has the shortest duration on a project

c. Is the most expensive path to implement

d. Contains the project's most significant tasks

Question 9

A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:

a. A chart of accounts

b. A code of accounts

c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)

d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)

Question 10

Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel?

a. Crashing

b. Fast tracking

c. Leveling

d. Hammocking

Question 11

Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):

a. Are based on historical trends

b. Can be derived from the WBS

c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages

d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs

Question 12

Bottom-up estimates:

a. Are based on historical trends

b. Can be derived from the WBS

c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation

d. a and c

Question 13

Definitive estimates are generally derived from:

a. Bottom-up estimates

b. Top-down estimates

c. Expert judgment cost estimates

d. Order of magnitude estimates

Question 14

The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called:

a. A resource Gantt chart

b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)

c. A resource ogive

d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)

Question 15

Which of the following shows resource allocation over time?

a. Resource Gantt chart

b. Resource matrix

c. S-Curve

d. Resource leveling

Question 16

What is the function of a change control board (CCB) in configuration management?

a. To assess the management impacts of change requests

b. To initiate changes needed on the project

c. To focus on the technical implication of change requests

d. To approve change requests coming from senior management

Question 17

Good functional requirements

a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed

b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do

c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do

d. Are created after development of the technical specifications

Question 18

The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is:

a. Management by Objectives

b. Management by Exception

c. Management by Walking Around

d. Management by Control Limits

Question 19

Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system?

a. SMART

b. KISS

c. MBO

d. LOWBALLING

Question 20

Which of the following is an elapsed time task?

a. Paint is drying

b. A painter paints the wall

c. Software is being written

d. A sandwich is being made

Question 21

An autocratic management style:

a. Is effective in most project management situations

b. Is effective in highly routine efforts

c. Is effective in high flux, state-of-the-art projects

d. Will lead to the tyranny of the majority

Question 22

A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as:

a. Egoless

b. Specialty

c. Surgical

d. Isomorphic

Question 23

The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:

a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates

b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan

c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant

d. To re-baseline the project budget

Question 24

If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have?

a. 0.5 hours

b. 1.5 hours

c. 2.5 hours

d. 8.5 hours

Question 25

In risk management, insurance is an example of:

a. Risk avoidance

b. Risk deflection

c. Risk acceptance

d. Contingency planning

Question 26

A four step risk assessment process reflecting standard risk management good practice consists of:

a. Risk identification, Risk deflection, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control

b. Risk acceptance, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control

c. Risk deflection, Contingency planning, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control

d. Risk identification, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control

Question 27

Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:

a. PERT

b. GERT

c. VERT

d. Project Evaluation

Question 28

If review of a project's status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is:

a. On budget, behind schedule

b. On budget, ahead of schedule

c. Over budget, behind schedule

d. Over budget, ahead of schedule

Question 29

The poor man's hierarchy is a method for:

a. Project estimation

b. Project scheduling

c. WBS construction

d. Project selection

Question 30

According to PMI, a WBS should focus on

a. Tasks

b. Deliverables

c. Interrelationships among activities

d. Cost of the project

Question 31

If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)?

a. $750

b. $1,000

c. $1,250

d. $1,333

Question 32

Which of the following is a scope planning tool?

a. Benefit/cost analysis

b. WBS

c. Earned Value analysis

d. Fast tracking

Question 33

In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:

a. Staff empowerment

b. Technical requirements of the project

c. Theory X management principles

d. Theory Y management principles

Question 34

The bottom-most level of the WBS -- the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured -- is called:

a. Work package

b. Code of accounts

c. Budget baseline

d. Change control level

Question 35

Scope creep means:

a. Needs emergence and identification

b. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during project execution

c. Migration of project needs to requirements

d. Imprecise scope statement

Question 36

Configuration management is a-

a. Methodology for working closely with customers by developing and updating requirements for faster response to changing customer needs

b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with evolving customer requirements

c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them

d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer input

Question 37

Rapid prototyping is a methodology for:

a. Specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them

b. Specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating later changes to them with minimum customer in put

c. Triggering early warning of unauthorized changes to the original prototype to enable project management to take remedial actions

d. Working closely with customers by creating and updating prototypes that respond to customer input

Question 38

Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of:

a. Scope statement definition

b. WBS construction

c. Rapid prototyping

d. Configuration management

Question 39

Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request?

a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources

b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources

c. If the request is coming from a valued customer

d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer

Question 40

Which of the following is not an activity carried out during project closeout?

a. Reassignment of project staff

b. Preparation of the project's baseline

c. Reassignment of material resources

d. Preparation of user manuals

Question 41

When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest.

True

False

Question 42

The astute project manager typically uses only one management style in order not to confuse his/her teammates.

True

False

Question 43

Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project's schedule.

True

False

Question 44

A work package is to be found at the summary level of the WBS.

True

False

Question 45

Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.

True

False

Question 46

In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan.

True

False

Question 47

Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results.

True

False

Question 48

Needs recognition is the first stage of the needs-requirement life cycle.

True

False

Question 49

Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications.

True

False

Question 50

A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests.

True

False

Question 51

Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves.

True

False

Question 52

There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame.

True

False

Question 53

When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.

True

False

Question 54

The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.

True

False

Question 55

A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome.

True

False

Question 56

An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost.

True

False

Question 57

A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization.

True

False

Question 58

Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge.

True

False

Question 59

Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow.

True

False

Question 60

A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid.

True

False