Oakes test is law rationally connected to its purpose

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Oakes test is law rationally connected to its purpose? Yes or not? The reason?

Does law minimally impair/violate the right or freedom in question? Yes or no? The reason?

Is infringement/violation of the right proportional to the law's objective? In other words do the positive effects of the law outweighs the negative effects of the violation/infringement? Yes or no? The reason?

Is the infringement/ violation justified or not? Yes or not? The reason?

Reference no: EM132532402

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