Does kants theory really have this result

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Assignment:

It is sometimes objected (by Utilitarians) that Kant's theory makes unintuitive absolute prohibitions against certain actions, like torture. For example, some think that it is unintuitive to say that, in the face of extreme bad consequences, we must NEVER EVER torture or lie or kill innocent persons.

Two questions:

1) Does Kant's theory really have this result? If so, which actions really do end up in this category (or in other words, which maxims does the Categorial Imperative ALWAYS strike down)?

2) If this really is Kant's position: what reply can he make to this objection?

Reference no: EM133277967

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