Reference no: EM131124391
Please answer all 50 questions
Q1. __________ holds that group effectiveness depends on an appropriate match between a leader's style and the demands of the situation.
a. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model.
b. The Michigan leadership theory.
c. Fiedler's leadership contingency theory.
d. The Ohio State leadership theory.
e. House's path-goal theory.
2. Leaders need both transactional and transformational leadership to be successful.
a. True
b. False
3. Transformational leadership is likely to be strongest at the top-management level where there is the greatest opportunity for proposing and communicating a vision.
a. True
b. False
4. Current assessments of path-goal theory by well-known scholars have pointed out that most aspects have been thoroughly validated.
a. True
b. False
5. Directive leadership is predicted to have a positive impact on subordinates when the task is ambiguous; it is predicted to have just the opposite effect for clear tasks.
a. True
b. False
6. Despite earlier beliefs, the Ohio State leadership studies concluded that leaders should be __________ on consideration behaviors and __________ on initiating structure behaviors.
a. Low ... low.
b. Low ... high.
c. Moderate ... moderate.
d. High ... low.
e. High ... high.
7. The __________ of charismatic leadership emphasizes personalized power, whereas the __________ of charismatic leadership emphasizes empowerment of followers.
a. Bright side ... dark side.
b. Selfish side ... unselfish side.
c. Sustainable side ... unsustainable side.
d. Dark side ... bright side.
e. Strong side ... weak side.
8. Transformational leadership is found throughout the organization.
a. True
b. False
9. Leadership is a special case of interpersonal influence that gets an individual or group to do what the leader or manager wants done.
a. True
b. False
10. Charismatic leaders use behaviors such as role modeling, image building, articulating goals, emphasizing high expectations, showing confidence, and arousing follower motives.
a. True
b. False
11. Individuals can employ three common strategies to protect themselves against the adverse effects of organizational politics. Individuals can take action but avoid risk, redirect accountability and responsibility, or maintain a low profile.
a. True
b. False
12. An appropriate ethical orientation for organization governance is to emphasize behavior that respects the rights of all affected parties.
a. True
b. False
13. Position power is used to achieve both upward influence and lateral influence.
a. True
b. False
14. Political action links managers more formally to one another as representatives of their work units.
a. True
b. False
15. Whereas organizational politics may be helpful in terms of self-protection, it is probably more commonly known and better understood in terms of helping the organization as a whole.
a. True
b. False
16. A person's referent power can be enhanced when the individual taps into the moral order or shows a clearer long-term path to a morally desirable end.
a. True
b. False
17. 'Gaining higher level support for one's requests' is the relational influence strategy of __________.
a. Assertiveness.
b. Reason.
c. Coalition.
d. Sanctions.
e. Higher authority.
18. Representative power is based upon access to and/or control of information.
a. True
b. False
19. The three dimensions of managerial power and influence are __________.
a. Diagonal, sideways, and lateral.
b. Upward, stable, and downward.
c. Downward, upward, and lateral.
d. Inward, neutral, and outward.
e. Diagonal, lateral, and neutral.
20. 'Reason' is the most popular strategy for using power to achieve the desired influence over other people.
a. True
b. False
21. A major advantage of new communication technologies is that everyone has access to the latest version of documents, calendars, and other materials.
a. True
b. False
22. In comparing two-way communication with one-way communication, research indicates that __________.
a. Two-way communication is more accurate.
b. One-way communication is more accurate.
c. Both types of communication are the same in terms of accuracy.
d. Two-way communication is more accurate in large firms, and one-way communication is more accurate in small firms.
e. Two-way communication is more accurate in small firms, and one-way communication is more accurate in large firms.
23. __________ to communication involve a poor choice or use of words and mixed messages.
a. Uncertain barriers.
b. Certain barriers.
c. Particular barriers.
d. Concrete barriers.
e. Semantic barriers.
24. The role of the 'source' in the communication process is to encode an intended meaning into a message.
a. True
b. False
25. __________ is the study of the way space is utilized.
a. Ethnocentrism.
b. Encoding.
c. Decoding.
d. Proxemics.
e. Kinesics.
26. __________ simply means getting out of the office and talking to people regularly as they do their jobs.
a. Management by two-way communication.
b. Management by one-on-one communication.
c. Management by interpersonal communication.
d. Management by exception.
e. Management by wandering around.
27. __________ is any disturbance that disrupts and interferes with the transference of messages within the communication process.
a. Clutter.
b. Noise.
c. Chaos.
d. Static.
e. Nonsense.
28. Communication is the process of sending and receiving messages with attached meanings.
a. True
b. False
29. Managers who spend time walking around can greatly reduce the perceived distance between themselves and their subordinates.
a. True
b. False
30. The political correctness of communications in the workplace deals with references to 'people of color,' the 'physically challenged,' and 'seniors' so as to prevent the choice of words from offending another individual or group.
a. True
b. False
31. A __________ is the degree of likelihood of an event's occurrence.
a. Potentiality.
b. Expectation.
c. Prospect.
d. Probability.
e. Feasibility.
32. What decision making concept is reflected in the popular adage, 'If at first you don't succeed, try, try again?'
a. Intuition.
b. Escalating commitment.
c. Bounded rationality.
d. Nonprogrammed decision making.
e. Satisficing.
33. New information technology is extremely capable of dealing with the issues raised by the garbage can model of decision making.
a. True
b. False
34. The __________ is a tendency for the decision maker to overestimate the degree to which he or she could have predicted an event that has already taken place.
a. Regret trap.
b. Second guessing trap.
c. Hindsight trap.
d. Confirmation trap.
e. Affirmation trap.
35. The central premise of the decision-making model developed by Vroom, Yetton, and Jago is that __________.
a. Decisions should be made in the most cost-efficient manner possible.
b. Group decision making is superior to authority or consultative decision making.
c. Authority decisions are superior to consultative decisions.
d. Consultative decisions are superior to authority decisions.
e. The decision-making method used should always be appropriate to the problem being solved.
36. In organizations where the setting is dynamic, the technology is changing, demands are conflicting, or the goals are unclear, the contents of the garbage can get __________.
a. Sorted out.
b. Clarified.
c. Changed.
d. Mixed up.
e. Squashed.
37. Problem-solving decisions in organizations are typically made under three different conditions or environments. These are __________.
a. Confidence, chance, and doubt.
b. Certainty, risk, and uncertainty.
c. Conviction, hazard, and concern.
d. Certainty, jeopardy, and skepticism.
e. Confidence, hazard, and doubt.
38. The __________ involves assessing an event by taking an initial value from historical precedent or an outside source, and then incrementally adjusting this value to make a current assessment.
a. Anchoring and adjustment heuristic.
b. Availability heuristic.
c. Representativeness heuristic.
d. Suitability heuristic.
e. Equivalence heuristic.
39. Classical decision theory appears to fit very well in today's chaotic world of globalizing high-tech organizations.
a. True
b. False
40. __________ can lead to systematic errors that affect the quality, and perhaps ethical implications, of any decision that is made.
a. Disciplines.
b. Regulations.
c. Heuristics.
d. Rules.
e. Codes.
41. In constituency negotiation, the manger is involved in negotiation with other persons, with each party representing a broader constituency.
a. True
b. False
42. In __________, a neutral third party works with persons involved in a negotiation to help them resolve impasses and settle disputes
a. Compromise.
b. Hierarchical referral.
c. Alternative dispute resolution.
d. Collaboration.
e. Goal displacement.
43. A common negotiation pitfall is the escalation of commitment to initial extreme demands.
a. True
b. False
44. Compromise can play a role in integrative negotiation when each party gives up something of perceived lesser value to gain something of greater value.
a. True
b. False
45. Disputes and open disagreements may erupt among units and people when workflow interdependence is high.
a. True
b. False
46. In assessing conflict management styles, cooperativeness refers to the desire to satisfy one's own needs and concerns.
a. True
b. False
47. Vertical conflict occurs between __________.
a. Divisional levels.
b. Functional levels.
c. Work-group levels.
d. Hierarchical levels.
e. Occupational levels.
48. Smoothing is another label for the direct conflict management approach of accommodation.
a. True
b. False
49. Effective negotiation occurs when relationship issues are resolved and substance issues are maintained.
a. True
b. False
50. Actual or perceived resource scarcity can foster destructive competition in organizations.
a. True
b. False