What basic reasons can you give for the success of the reform movement in Germany and England and its failure in Spain and France? I am not interested per se in the differences in doctrine among Lutherans, Calvinists, Anglicans, and/or Catholics, but rather how these religions or sects fared in these lands due to the political situation of these lands and the religious doctrines popular there. As always, some sense of time would be deeply appreciated.

1.Why was the reform movement successful both in the national, secular state of England and in the German part of the disorganized Holy Roman Empire? What did the reform movement have to offer the King of England and the local lords of northern Germany?

2.Why was the reform movement a failure in the national, secular states of France and Spain? What did the traditional, organized church have to offer the kings of Spain and France that the reform religion could not?

3.What date would you give to mark the final success of the reform movement in England and northern Germany, and its final failure in Spain and France?