Why no part of the change is due to the income effect

Reference no: EM13200309

If my optimal choice for two goods (cookies and milk) is different from two different weeks (for example, week one is C:8,M:16 and week two is C:16,M:16) BUT INCOME IS THE SAME throughout all weeks ($8). Does that mean that no part of the change is due to the income effect?

Reference no: EM13200309

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