Why do you think hes determined to both acknowledge

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In Book I, Chapter 5, Aristotle bluntly dismissed the idea that genuine, human happiness could be achieved through a life of purely sensual pleasure or gratification.  He also postponed discussion of whether a life of study could be considered a happy life.  

As the text progresses, however, it becomes clear that Aristotle also sees pleasure as a significant feature of a good life, and indeed, as we see for instance in Book II, as a sign of the sort of state of character one possesses.   

With the above background in mind, consider Aristotle's arguments about pleasure as 'a good' but not, ultimately, 'the good' in Books VII and X and respond to the following questions. 

  1. What is the difference between the pleasures that Aristotle endorses in these sections and the one he dismissed in Book I?
  2. Why do you think he's determined to both acknowledge that pleasure is a good thing, but not make it into the final end?
  3. To what extent do the life of study that he endorses and the 'most pleasant life' seem to coincide?

Reference no: EM133448123

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