What is the proper name for the shaft of a long bone

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Reference no: EM131123625

1. Which of the following describes the order of epidermal layers a needle would pierce if placed in the sole of the foot?

  • stratum basale
  • stratum corneum
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum lucidum
  • stratum spinosum

2, 4, 3, 5, 1

1, 3, 5, 2, 4

2, 3, 4, 1, 5

2, 3, 5, 1, 4

1, 5, 3, 4, 2

2. What is the name of the clear layer of epidermis in which cells die because of their inability to get nutrients and oxygen?

Stratum lucidum

Stratum granulosum

Stratum basale

Stratum corneum

Stratum spinosum

3. A splinter penetrates to the deepest layer of the epidermis on the foot. What is this layer called?

Stratum granulosum

Stratum corneum

Stratum basale

Stratum spinosum

Stratum lucidum

4. What is the name of the finger-like upward projections of the dermis into the epidermis?

Pacinian corpuscles

Hair follicles

Dermal papillae

Hair bulbs

Meissner's corpuscles

5. What forms the dermis?

Fibrous connective tissue

Loose connective tissue

Epithelial tissue

Adipose tissue

Skeletal muscle

6. Where are the blood vessels that supply skin cells found?

In the epidermis alone

In the epidermis and dermis

In the subcutaneous layer alone

In the dermis and subcutaneous layer

In the hypodermis only

7. Which of the following is/are found in the dermis?

Melanocytes

Keratin

Stratum corneum

Pain and touch receptors

stratum spinosum

8. Which of the following is not an epidermal derivative?

Sweat glands

Sebaceous glands

Hair follicles

Sensory receptors

Nail

9. What is the main function of melanocytes?

To remove dead cells by phagocytosis.

To help control body temperature.

To protect deeper cells from sunlight.

To produce vitamin D.

To detect sensory impulses.

10. What substance(s) is/are secreted by the eccrine glands?

Fatty substances, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

Primarily uric acid

Solely metabolic wastes

Basic proteins

Mostly water, sodium chloride, and trace amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and vitamin C

11. Which of the following describes how the secretion of sweat is stimulated?

As a protective coating when one is swimming

When the air temperature drops

By hormones, especially male sex hormones

By high temperatures

Both by high temperatures and by hormones

12. Acne is a disorder associated with inflammation of which of the following?

Apocrine sweat glands

Sebaceous glands

Eccrine sweat glands

Hair follicles

Nail matrix

13. When the body temperature rises, which of the following takes place?

Eccrine glands become active.

Arrector pili muscles contract.

Pacinian corpuscles are stimulated.

Blood is prevented from reaching skin capillary beds.

All of the above.

14. Destruction of the hair bulb would result in its inability to do which of the following?

Produce goose bumps

Grow

Resist drying

Produce oil

Produce perspiration

15. In order to warm the body up when cold which of the following occurs?

The arrector pili muscles contract to stand hairs upright.

Sudoriferous glands release sweat.

Vitamin D is synthesized.

Sebaceous glands release oil.

Melanin is produced.

16. What are nails composed of?

Carotene

Melanin

Keratin

Hemoglobin

Sebum

17. What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

Loss of immune function

Infection

Dehydration

Unbearable pain

Blood loss

18. Which of the following is an indication of melanoma?

A pigmented spot that contains areas of different colors

A pigmented spot that has smooth borders

A symmetrical mole

A pigmented spot that is black

A spot on the skin that is smaller than the size of a pencil eraser

19. Which of the following homeostatic imbalances is caused by skin exposure to chemicals?

Cyanosis

Athlete's foot

Impetigo

Contact dermatitis

Cold sores

20. Which of the following bones is NOT considered part of the appendicular skeleton?

Sternum

Metatarsals

Radius

Femur

Scapula

21. Which of the following is NOT included in the appendicular skeleton?

Pectoral girdle

Vertebral column

Upper limbs

Pelvic girdle

Ulna

22. Select the option that describes the components of the axial skeleton.

  • Skull
  • Arms and legs
  • Ribs and sternum
  • Vertebrae
  • Pelvic girdles

2, 5

2, 3, 4, 5

1, 3, 4

1, 2, 3, 5

1, 3, 4, 5

23. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

Support

Movement

Storage

Constraint

Hematopoiesis

24. What tiny canal connects central (Haversian) canals to lacunae in compact bone?

Perforating canal

Osteon

Lamella

Canaliculus

Periosteum

25. What are the small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found?

Haversian canals

Trabeculae

Volkmann's canals

Lamellae

Lacunae

26. Red bone marrow functions in the formation of which of the following?

Red blood cells and platelets

White blood cells only

Red and white blood cells only

Red and white blood cells and platelets

Platelets only

27. Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is correct?

Wrist and ankle bones ? long bones

Arm and leg bones ? short bones

Cranium ? sesamoid bones

Skull bones ? flat bones

Coxal bones ? short bones

28. The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as which of the following?

Flat bones

Compact bones

Sesamoid bones

Long bones

Irregular bones

29. What does the presence of an epiphyseal plate indicate?

The bone is dead.

The bone length is increasing.

The bone diameter is increasing.

The bone diameter is decreasing.

The bone length is no longer increasing.

30. What is the name for a round or oval opening through a bone?

Fissure

Foramen

Fossa

Facet

Trochanter

31. What is the name of a shallow, basin-like depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface?

Foramen

Sinus

Fossa

Groove

Meatus

32. What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

Dense fibrous connective tissue

Loose fibrous connective tissue

Hyaline cartilage

Elastic connective tissue

Fibrocartilage

33. What factor(s) determine(s) where bone matrix is to be remodeled?

Calcium level of the blood

Sex hormones

Growth hormone

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton

34. The healing of a bone fracture has four stages. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages?

  • Bony callus formation
  • Bone remodeling
  • Fibrocartilage callus formation
  • Hematoma formation

1, 3, 4, 2

4, 3, 1, 2

1, 3, 2, 4

4, 3, 2, 1

1, 2, 3, 4

35. A compound fracture can be described as which of the following?

The broken bone ends are forced into each other.

Adjacent bones fracture simultaneously.

The broken bone is exposed to the outside.

The bone is broken into many fragments.

The bone is crushed.

36. What is the name of bone destroying cells?

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Osteocytes

Lacunae

Natural killer cells

37. Bone formation can be referred to as which of the following?

Osteoarthritis

Ossification

Gout

Rickets

Osteoporosis

38. What is the proper name for the shaft of a long bone?

Epiphysis

Periosteum

Diaphysis

Osteon

Haversian canal

39. Why is the hyoid bone unique?

It has an unusual shape.

It is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone.

It is covered with mucosa.

It largely consists of cartilage.

It has no specific function.

40. Which of the following describes the atlas?

Part of the sacrum

Last lumbar vertebra

First cervical vertebra

First thoracic vertebra

Second cervical vertebra

41. What is the name of the suture found between the parietal and occipital bone?

Lambdoid suture

Squamous suture

Sagittal suture

Coronal suture

Both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture

42. All of the following facial bones are paired except one. Which of the following is the unpaired facial bone?

Lacrimal

Palatine

Vomer

Zygomatic

Maxillae

43. The sternum is the result of fusion of what three bones?

Pubis, ischium, ilium

Manubrium, body, xiphoid process

True ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process

Ischium, ilium, coccyx

Jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint

44. Which of the following is the tailbone?

Sacrum

Pubis

Coccyx

Ischium

Patella

45. Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Which of the following is the exception?

Clavicle

Humerus

Scapula

Fibula

Radius

46. Which of the following is correct regarding the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis?

The distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less.

The female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker.

The female iliac bones are less flared.

The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.

The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.

47. Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are __________, whereas articulations permitting no movement are called __________.

synarthroses; amphiarthroses

diarthroses; amphiarthroses

diarthroses; synarthroses

amphiarthroses; diarthroses

amphiarthroses; synarthroses

48. Which of the following apply to diarthroses?

Exhibit a joint cavity

Sutures

Are immovable

Slightly movable

a and d

49. The joints between the vertebrae of the backbone are best described as which of the following?

Immovable

Slightly movable

Freely movable

Synovial

Hinge

50. What connective tissue articulates one bone to another?

Elastic connective tissue

Adipose tissue

Ligaments

Tendons

Areolar connective tissue

Reference no: EM131123625

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