Reference no: EM133921465
Questions
1. Microalbuminuria is a measure of:
a. total urinary protein
b. late renal compromise in a diabetic patient
c. early glycemic abnormality
d. protein lost into the urine
2. Diagnostic confirmation of acute leukemia is based on:
a. bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
b. pancytopenia
c. hyperuricemia
d. all of the above
3. Of the following choices, the lease likely cause of cough is:
a. asthma
b. gastroesophageal reflux
c. acute pharyngitis
d. allergic rhinitis
4. What is the most common cause of Cushing's syndrome?
a. excessive ACTH production
b. administration of glucocorticoid or ACTH
c. pituitary adenoma or a non-pituitary ACTH-producing tumor
d. autonomous cortisol production from adrenal tissue
5. Which of the following patients most warrants screening for hypothyroidism?
a. a young adult female with postpartum depression lasting 2 weeks
b. a patient taking thyroid replacement preparation
c. a 40 year old male with unexplained tremors
d. an elderly female with recent onset of mental dysfunction
6. Before initiating an HMG CoA-reductase inhibitor for hyperlipidemia, the nurse practitioner orders liver function studies. The patient's aminotransferase (ALT) is elevated. What laboratory test(s) should be ordered?
a. serologic markers for hepatitis
b. serum bilirubin
c. serum cholesterol with HDL and LDL
d. a liver biopsy
7. Reed-Sternberg B lymphocytes are associated with which of the following disorders:
a. aplastic anemia
b. hodgkin's lymphoma
c. non hodgkin's lymphoma
d. myelodysplastic syndromes
8. The most commonly recommended method for prostate cancer screening in a 55 year old male is:
a. digital rectal examination (DRE) plus prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b. prostate specific antigen alone
c. transrectal ultrasound alone
d. prostate specific antigen and transrectal ultrasound
9. A patient has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is prescribed. How long should the nurse practitioner wait before checking the patient's TSH?
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 4 weeks
d. 8 weeks
10. After thorough history, physical examination, and laboratory tests, a patient is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following initial treatment plans is currently considered most effective?
a. a low fat, tyramine-free, caffeine-free, high fiber diet, alone with a daily diary, and attention to psychosocial factors
b. referral to a gastroenterologist for colonoscopy
c. treatment with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor such as fluoxetine or sertraline
d. antibiotics, nutritional support, and high fiber diet
11. Which of the following are classic features of ulcerative colitis?
a. right lower quadrant pain, frequently accompanied by a palpable mass, fever, and leukocytosis
b. painful hematemesis, occasionally accompanied by melena
c. rapidly progressive dysphagia with ingestion of solid foods, anorexia, and weight loss out of proportion to the dysphagia
d. remissions and exacerbations of bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, fecal incontinence, abdominal pain, and weight loss
12. A patient presents with classic symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). He is instructed on life style modifications and drug therapy for 8 weeks. Three months later he returns, reporting that he was "fine" as long as he took the medication. The most appropriate next step is:
a. referral for surgical intervention such as a partial or complete fundoplication
b. dependent upon how severe the practitioner believes the condition
c. to repeat the 8 week course of drug therapy while continuing lifestyle modifications
d. investigation with endoscopy, manometry, and/or pH testing
13. A 20 year old male patient complains of "scrotal swelling." He states his scrotum feels heavy, but denies pain. On examination, the nurse practitioner notes transillumination of the scrotum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. indirect inguinal hernia
b. hydrocele
c. orchitis
d. testicular torsion
14. Which of the following is NOT appropriate suppression therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis?
a. doxycycline 100 mg qd
b. nitrofurantoin 100 mg qd
c. bactrim DS qd
d. erythromycin qd
15. The National Cholesterol Education Program's Adult Treatment Panel III recommends that the goal for low density lipoproteins in high risk patients be less than:
a. 160mg/dL
b. 130mg/dL
c. 100mg/dL
d. 70mg/dL
16. John, age 33, has a total cholesterol level of 188 mg/dL. How often should he be screened for hypercholesterolemia?
a. every 5 years
b. every 2 years
c. every year
d. whenever blood work is done
17. The nurse practitioner diagnoses epididymitis in a 24 year old sexually active male patient. The drug of choice for treatment of this patient is:
a. oral ciprofloxacin
b. oral doxycycline plus intramuscular ceftriaxone
c. oral trimethropim-sulfarmethoxazole
d. intramuscular penicillin
18. Which of the following is not a common early sign of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
a. difficulty initiating a urine stream
b. nocturia
c. urinary retention
d. increased force of urine flow
19. Kyle, age 69, has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). When teaching him how to reduce his lower esophageal sphincter pressure, which substances do you recommend that he avoid?
a. apples
b. peppermint
c. cucumbers
d. popsicles
20. Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with the development of syndrome X and type 2 diabetes mellitus?
a. hypertriglyceridemia and low high-density lipoprotein
b. gestational diabetes and polycystic ovarian syndrome
c. hispanic, african-american, native-american, and pacific islander ethnicity
d. postprandial hypoglycemia