What is the appropriate step in management

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Problem

A 23 year old woman returns after an abnormal pap smear result. Her results show low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) with a positive HPV test. She has had 3 male sexual partners in her life over the last 4 years and has been in an exclusive relationship with the same man for the last 3 years. She denies consistent use of barrier protection during intercourse. Her periods are regular, lasting 5 days every 30 days. She denies menorrhagia, vaginal discharge, abnormal bleeding, dysuria, or past history of sexually transmitted infection. She had her first pap smear two years ago with her regular doctor in new york, she is uncertain of the result. She is a post graduate student at a local state college in ohio. Get the instant assignment help. What is the appropriate step in management?

Reference no: EM133834786

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