What is best explanation the drug regimen should be changed

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Problem

YT and DM both underwent elective orthopedic procedures and are experiencing acute pain. Using a standardized postoperative management plan on Day #1, both patients received low doses of IV hydromorphone (0.5mg, q4h, PRN) and PO acetaminophen with adequate pain relieve. On Day #2 IV hydromorphone was discontinued and a new regimen of acetaminophen 1000mg q8h, tramadol 75mg q6h and codeine 60mg q4h was started. DM had adequate pain control but after a few doses developed nausea and vomiting; YT had very poor pain relief, limiting their participation in physical therapy. Based on the information provided, what is the best explanation this drug regimen should be changed?

Reference no: EM133753684

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