Reference no: EM131338085

Assignment:

Part 1- Adverse Reactions/Drug Interactions

1. What happens to a drug that metabolizes quickly in the liver?
A. It gains in effectiveness and toxicity.
B. It loses its effect quickly.
C. It loses its effect slowly.
D. It becomes an inactive alcohol.

2. The following figures indicate the incidence of drug-induced tremors for four drugs: Drug A: 11 percent; Drug B: 9.5 percent; Drug C: 10 percent; Drug D: 2 percent. Which of these drugs causes the highest incidence of tremors?
A. Drug D
B. Drug C
C. Drug A
D. Drug B

3. Which of the following adverse drug reactions indicates an impaired production of platelets?
A. Thrombocytosis
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Anemia

4. Which of the following adverse drug effects indicates sleepiness?
A. Somnolence
B. Pharyngitis
C. Dyspepsia
D. Hypokinesia

5. Which of the following digestive system effects is the most common adverse reaction seen with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Anorexia
D. Gastric irritation

6. A patient who is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) to prevent seizures should not be given
A. codeine.
B. acetaminophen.
C. phenylbutazone (Butazolidin).
D. propoxyphene (Darvocet-N).

7. Which of the following drugs should not be given to patients who are taking oral contraceptives?
A. Prozac
B. Penicillin VK
C. Aspirin
D. Acetaminophen

8. Which of the following adverse drug reactions indicates a greater number of white cells than normal?
A. Leukocytosis
B. Leukopenia
C. Dermatitis
D. Hypotension

9. Adverse reactions caused by a drug are also called _______ actions.
A. undesirable
B. therapeutic
C. beneficial
D. desirable

10. The description of drug-induced allergies will be found in the adverse-reaction section of a drug monograph under the category
A. Endocrine System.
B. Special Senses.
C. Hematologic Effects.
D. Hypersensitivity Reactions.

11. When a drug interacts with warfarin, the drug may cause a dangerous adverse effect by
A. causing the withdrawal of warfarin.
B. inhibiting the oxidative actions of the drug-metabolizing enzyme system.
C. enhancing the effect of the anticoagulant.
D. increasing the psychomotor impairment of the patient.

12. Which of the following statements about pharmacovigilance is true?
A. Physicians and patients are required to make reports about adverse drug reactions to pharmacovigilance centers.
B. Only the long-term side effects of medicines are investigated by pharmacovigilance researchers.
C. Pharmacovigilance is devoted to detecting, understanding, and preventing adverse effects in patients.
D. Pharmacovigilance research takes place before a drug has gone through clinical trials and entered the marketplace.

13. Using alcohol with _______ will cut their lethal dose in half.
A. barbiturates
B. narcotics
C. tranquilizers
D. antidepressants

14. Phenobarbital will increase the liver metabolism of _______ to decrease its effectiveness.
A. warfarin
B. ibuprofen
C. acetaminophen
D. alcohol

15. Which of the following drugs can erythromycin interact with to cause nausea, headache, and blurred vision?
A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Tegretol
C. Tolbutamide (Orinase)
D. Penicillin VK

16. Alcohol should not be taken with any drug containing _______ because of the chance of liver toxicity.
A. aluminum salts
B. Motrin
C. acetaminophen
D. calcium

17. When taken simultaneously with tetracycline, which of the following will prevent the absorption of tetracycline into the bloodstream?
A. Theophylline
B. Erythromycin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Aluminum-containing antacids

18. Which of the following adverse drug reactions indicates an abnormal heart rhythm?
A. Arrhythmia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Angina-like pain
D. Thrombocytosis

19. Which of the following drugs should not be given to patients who are taking warfarin?
A. Theophylline
B. Antacids
C. Aspirin
D. Acetaminophen

20. Which of the following adverse effects is categorized as a whole-body reaction, and is caused by drugs such as fluoxetine (Prozac) and enalapril (Vasotec)?
A. Mental confusion
B. Headache
C. Mental depression
D. Dizziness

Part 2- Compounding of Sterile Products

1. A TPN has been prescribed for a patient to be administered at 180 ml per hour. What type of TPN is this?
A. Central
B. Peripheral
C. Dorsal
D. Lateral

2. How many total grams of dextrose are there in a 10% syringe that's 20 ml in size?
A. 10 g
B. 20 g
C. 2 g
D. 5 g

3. Coring occurs when the IV technician
A. inserts a needle at the wrong angle or uses a large-bore needle.
B. mixes two IV products that are incompatible.
C. fails to use a filter needle with an ampule.
D. follows incorrect procedures for reconstitution.

4. Which of the following are two commercially available IV fat emulsions?
A. Humulin R and Novolin R
B. Mutamycin and Mithracin
C. RenAmin and NephrAmine
D. Intralipids and Liposyn II

5. A pharmacy technician should add regular insulin to the bag through the port only after removing the transfer tubing because insulin
A. interacts with dextrose.
B. adheres to the port.
C. adheres to the transfer tubing.
D. interacts with amino acids.

6. A laminar flow hood has been turned off. After it's turned back on, how long must it run before using it?
A. 2 hours
B. 30 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 1 hour

7. Which of the following is an electrolyte?
A. Folic acid
B. Potassium chloride
C. Intravenous emulsion
D. Vitamin C

8. Transfer tubings or sets are used for which one of the following reasons?
A. In the hospital to administer IVPBs to a patient
B. In the pharmacy to move a large amount of fluid into another container
C. In the hospital to administer LVPs to a patient
D. In the pharmacy to administer IVPs to a patient

9. How can you avoid buildup of positive pressure when reconstituting antineoplastics?
A. Lightly tap the ampule with your finger or on the counter.
B. Allow air from the vial to enter the syringe.
C. Inject air into the vial.
D. Use a luer lock syringe to hold the needle in place.

10. Why would sterile water for injection be used in a TPN?
A. To change it from a peripheral TPN to a central TPN
B. To increase the volume of the laminar flow
C. To sterilize the solution through a 0.22-micron filter
D. To dilute the dextrose to a desired concentration

11. Which of the following must a technician use in the hand preparation of TPNs, ophthalmics, and antineoplastics?
A. A computerized compounding machine
B. A chemo safety pin
C. A piece of sterile gauze
D. A laminar flow hood

12. Technicians should use yellow, puncture-resistant containers labeled Caution: Chemotherapy Waste in the disposal of which of the following materials?
A. Absorbent mats used in the preparation of TPNs
B. Transfer tubings used in the transfer of lipids to 3-in-1 solutions
C. Ophthalmics from the Compounding Centers of America
D. Gloves used in the preparation of antineoplastics

13. 750 mg of a drug is in a total of 10 ml of a solution after reconstitution. How much solution should be drawn up to obtain 375 mg of the drug?
A. 9 ml
B. 2 ml
C. 5 ml
D. 7.5 ml

14. Large volumes of IV solution may easily be transferred into a(n)
A. premixed piggyback.
B. evacuated container.
C. prefilled syringe.
D. ampule or vial.

15. Isotonic products for IV use have a concentration that's _______ that of body fluids.
A. the same as
B. lower than
C. slightly lower than
D. higher than

16. Calculate the IV rate if you have a 500 ml bag that's to be infused over 8 hours.
A. 40 ml/hr
B. 60 ml/hr
C. 63 ml/hr
D. 16 ml/hr

17. A horizontal laminar flow hood has air flowing from
A. the front toward the worker.
B. bottom to top.
C. top to bottom.
D. behind the filter toward the worker.

18. Which of the following is considered to be controlled room temperature?
A. 59-86°F (15-30°C)
B. 36-46°F (28°C)
C. 65-72°F (18-22°C)
D. 0-32°F (-18-0°C)

19. Which of the following is an amino acid solution?
A. Cerubidine
B. Travasol
C. Asparaginase
D. Tobrex

20. What is the highest dextrose concentration that may be administered through a peripheral vein?
A. 90%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 10%

21. For what is a 0.22-micron filter used in the preparation of ophthalmics?
A. Sterilization
B. pH balancing
C. Decalcifying
D. Measuring

22. What is the concentration of a solution that has 2 g of powder in 5 ml of solution?
A. 2.5 g per ml
B. 0.4 g per ml
C. 10 g per ml
D. 0.75 g per ml

23. If a TPN is running at 50 ml per hour, how many milliliters will be required in one bag to last 24 hours?
A. 1200 ml
B. 1000 ml
C. 2000 ml
D. 2400 ml

24. Microbial contamination of an IV product will most likely occur when a technician
A. stores products in metal boxes.
B. wears jewelry and makeup.
C. wears surgical attire and foot, face, and hair coverings.
D. works six inches within the hood.

25. Which of the following solutions are used most often for IVPB dilution?
A. Lactated Ringer's and D5
B. D5W and normal saline
C. D50% and 9% sodium chloride
D. D5 & 0.9NS and 0.9% NaCl

26. A(n) _______ is a microorganism that can cause disease but isn't considered a living thing.
A. bacterium.
B. aerobic organism.
C. virus.
D. anaerobic organism.

27. A drug product that contains undissolved solids is known as a(n)
A. suspension.
B. isotonic solution.
C. admixture.
D. solution.

28. What is the purpose of a HEPA filter?
A. To monitor airborne contaminants
B. To filter airborne contaminants
C. To filter IV solutions
D. To filter IV suspensions

29. Which of the following ingredients are parts of a total parenteral nutrition solution?
A. Bleomycin, asparaginase, and busulfan
B. Antineoplastics, aerosolized drugs, and tetanus vaccines
C. Dextrose, amino acids, and electrolytes
D. Antibiotics, ophthalmic preparations, and miscible fluids

30. _______ may be added to a TPN for patients who are intolerant to high levels of sugar.
A. Manganese
B. Cimetidine
C. Heparin
D. Insulin

31. Intermittent infusions are most often given
A. by LVP.
B. at a constant rate over a 24-hour period.
C. continuously.
D. at regular intervals, such as every six or eight hours.

32. Which of the following are parts of a trace element solution?
A. Magnesium, potassium, titanium, and platinum
B. Sodium, potassium, and calcium
C. Vitamin B, vitamin C, and folic acid
D. Zinc, copper, chromium, and manganese

33. In what part of the body are ophthalmic preparations directly administered?
A. The eye
B. The nose
C. The mouth
D. The ear

34. If there are 250 mg of medication in a 5 ml solution, how many milligrams of medication are in 2.5 ml of the solution?
A. 250 mg
B. 500 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 125 mg

35. Intravenous medications must have which of the following characteristics?
A. Be sterile (free from microorganisms)
B. Be in powder form originally
C. Be diluted to a larger volume
D. Be drawn up with a final filtering device

36. Large-volume parenterals (LVPs) are in what general size range?
A. 0.5 ml-1 ml
B. 50 ml-100 ml
C. 2 ml-50 ml
D. 250 ml-3000 ml

37. Which of the following is a characteristic of all ophthalmic products?
A. Sterile
B. Acidic
C. Commercially produced
D. Extemporaneously compounded

38. An IV is set to run at 125 ml per hour. How long will it take for the IV to run out if it's a 1000 ml bag?
A. 8 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 5 hours

39. Which of the following terms best describes the solution in a TPN?
A. Hypertonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Tonic

40. Convert 400 mcg to milligrams.
A. 0.4 mg
B. 0.004 mg
C. 0.04 mg
D. 4 mg

41. A preparation containing two or more ingredients that's administered as IV therapy is known as IV
A. push.
B. admixture.
C. piggyback.
D. infusion.

42. Concentrated solutions of which of the following are base solutions in a TPN?
A. Dextrose and amino acids
B. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
C. Antineoplastics and magnesium salts
D. MVI and lipids

43. IV therapy is normally used for patients who need
A. rehydration, additional nutrition, electrolyte replacement, or drugs that require larger volumes for dilution.
B. hypertonic infusion, electrolyte replacement, dehydration, or drugs that require larger volumes for dilution.
C. hypertonic infusion, electrolyte replacement, rehydration, or additional nutrition.
D. additional nutrition, dehydration, isotonic infusion, or drugs that require larger volumes for dilution.

44. A final filtering device is used when the IV tech needs to
A. administer a cloudy IV to a patient.
B. remove a core or glass fragments from an IV solution.
C. reconstitute a powdered drug.
D. remove particulate matter from solution before administration to a patient.

45. A syringe that has a luer lock tip has which of the following characteristics?
A. The needle is attached to the threaded tip by twisting it like a screw.
B. The tip screws onto an oversized barrel.
C. The cone-shaped tip is held onto the barrel by friction.
D. The needle is attached to the smooth cone-shaped tip by friction.