Is the cartesian circle a serious problem for descartes

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At AT7: 35, in the Third Meditation, Descartes defines his criterion for truth, that those things are true which he can clearly and distinctly perceive with his intellect, and then goes on in that meditation to present two arguments for the existence of the Judeo-Christian God, claiming that such a being must exist because he then clearly and distinctly perceives/understands these arguments and their conclusions. Then at AT7: 69-71, in the Fifth Meditation, after arguing a third time that the Judeo-Christian God exists, Descartes argues that the existence of the Judeo-Christian God is necessary for anything to be perceived clearly and distinctly, i.e. to know that anything is true and not a deception.

This is known as The Cartesian Circle: that Descartes uses his criterion of the clarity and distinctness of his perceptions to argue for the existence of God, but also uses the existence of God to guarantee the clarity and distinctness of his perceptions. Since Descartes' time, this has been pointed out as a fatal flaw, or at least a serious problem, with Descartes' reasoning in the meditations. For the rules of logic do not allow circular reasoning, i.e. using a premise to support a conclusion, but also using that conclusion to support the same premise.

Is The Cartesian Circle a serious problem for Descartes? Or is there a way to answer this objection?

 

Reference no: EM133596910

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