Reference no: EM131334966
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following offenses is not considered a violent crime, according to the UCR?
a. forcible rape
b. arson
c. nonnegligent manslaughter
d. robbery
e. aggravated assault
2. Three disciplines that have traditionally dominated the study of crime are:
a. sociology, psychology and psychiatry.
b. psychology, sociology and anthropology.
c. psychology, anthropology and economics.
d. psychology, anthropology and medicine.
e. medicine, psychology and criminal justice.
3. Sigmund Freud is most associated with which one of the following fields?
a. traditional psychiatric criminology
b. sociological criminology
c. psychological criminology
d. contemporary psychiatric criminology
e. molecular criminology
4. Psychological criminology recently shifted its focus to a more ______ and ______ approach to the study of criminal behavior.
a. forensic; scientific
b. trait-focused; instrumental
c. personality; biological
d. cognitive; developmental
e. sociological; psychiatric
5. The difference-in-kind perspective argues that humans are distinctly different from animals in which of the following ways?
a. spiritually
b. mentally
c. psychologically
d. a and c only
e. All of the above.
6. Illegal behavior that only juveniles can commit such as incorrigibility, running away, and truancy are called:
a. offenses against the public order.
b. Part I crimes.
c. status offenses.
d. age-related crimes.
e. juvenile violations.
7. Official crime statistics, such as those produced by the FBI:
a. normally overestimate the true incidence of crime.
b. have been found to be highly accurate.
c. report approximately the same amount of crime as victimization surveys.
d. normally underestimate the true incidence of crime.
e. overestimate the number of sexual offenses.
8. Compared with the UCR, the NIBRS:
a. provides information on international crime.
b. is older.
c. provides more detailed information about a criminal event.
d. includes conviction data as well as arrest data.
e. is more reliable.
9. Which statement is not true about language impairment and antisocial behavior?
a. It increases frustration levels in children who have difficulty expressing themselves.
b. It teaches children to think outside the box and problem-solve in socially appropriate ways.
c. It can lead to peer rejection and poor academic performance.
d. It can be a strong predictor of later adult criminal behavior.
e. It is evident in the background of a high percentage of children diagnosed with conduct disorders.
10. According to Virginia Douglas (2004), the core problem in ADHD children involves:
a. executive function skills.
b. not knowing.
c. self-regulation.
d. overprescribed stimulant drugs.
e. a and c only
11. Which of the following is not a feature of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?
a. easily distracted
b. fidgety
c. impulsiveness
d. poor self-regulation
e. poor language development
12. Conduct disorder is characterized by the ______ and ______ pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others.
a. cruel; unusual
b. aggressive; repetitive
c. persistent; aggressive
d. repetitive; persistent
e. antisocial; aggressive
13. Hodgins, Cree and Mark (2008) found that conduct disorder present prior to age 15 is:
a. effectively treated with medication.
b. strongly associated with violent behavior into middle age.
c. strongly associated with crime in females.
d. effectively treated with psychotherapy.
e. related to quality of the marital relationship in the home.
14. One of the strongest predictors of later antisocial behavior is:
a. peer rejection.
b. lack of interests or hobbies.
c. dysfunctional family dynamics.
d. overexposure to nature and the outdoors.
e. excessive television viewing.
15. According to Akers' theory, groups tend to adopt certain rules of conduct concerning what is bad, right or wrong, justified or unjustified. These group attitudes are called:
a. discriminative stimuli.
b. ecological norms.
c. normative definitions.
d. neutralizing stimuli.
e. group dynamics.
16. Berkowitz's two criminal personality classifications are:
a. psychopathic/nonpsychopathic.
b. violent/nonviolent.
c. greedy/altruistic.
d. socialized/individual.
e. pyschopathic/sociopathic.
17. When we specifically attribute good aspects about ourselves to dispositional factors, and bad things to the environment, we are demonstrating:
a. fundamental attribution error.
b. self-serving bias.
c. reactance.
d. wrongful attribution.
e. self-fulfilling prophecy.
18. According to differential association-reinforcement theory, signals that communicate that certain behaviors are encouraged and reinforced are:
a. neutralizing stimuli.
b. justifying discriminative stimuli.
c. neutralizing stimuli.
d. social reinforcements.
e. positive discriminative stimuli.
19. In his recent theory, Bandura states that before people can engage in behavior that violates their moral principles they must:
a. learn the techniques of that behavior.
b. believe that the reward outweighs the punishment.
c. reject their moral principles.
d. accept a higher authority.
e. disengage from their moral principles.
20. After getting into a physical altercation with a co-worker at his job site, George tailgates two cars on the drive home and throws a cell phone at his wife when he arrives home to find that dinner is not ready. The above scenario is an example of:
a. excitation transfer theory.
b. Medea complex.
c. road rage.
d. rumination.
e. weapons effect.
21. The weapon used in road rage is:
a. tire iron.
b. the vehicle.
c. one's fist.
d. firearms.
e. all of the above
22. Which statement most accurately reflects research findings on gender differences in aggression?
a. Boys are generally more aggressive than girls.
b. Gender differences in aggression are primarily due to biology.
c. Gender differences are due to cultural and socialization processes that promote different kinds of aggression.
d. Girls are more aggressive than boys during the pre-school years only.
e. Boys are more overtly aggressive than girls during the pre-school years, then aggression rapidly decreases.
23. The term defined as an incident in which an angry, impatient, or aroused motorist intentionally injures or kills, or tries to injure or kill, another motorist, passenger, or pedestrian in response to a traffic dispute, altercation, or grievance is called:
a. aggressive driving.
b. hostile driving.
c. immature driving.
d. road rage.
e. vehicular homicide.
24. Overt and covert aggression are different in:
a. behavioral patterns.
b. cognitions.
c. development.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
25. The tendency to attack space violators is referred to as:
a. territoriality.
b. hydraulic model of aggression.
c. passive violence.
d. animality.
e. instinctual violence.
26. ______ refers to self-focused attention toward one's thoughts and feelings. In other words, the person keeps thinking about an incident long after it is over.
a. Expressive aggression
b. Rumination
c. Nodal behavior
d. Antinodal behavior
e. Subliminal foci
27. An approach in psychology that views human cognition and behavior in a broadly Darwinian context of adaptation to evolving physical and social environments is called ______psychology.
a. Darwinian
b. adaptation
c. positive
d. evolutionary
e. psychodynamic
28. According to Berkowitz, high levels of arousal ______ aggressive behavior in certain situations.
a. completely dissipate
b. facilitate
c. slightly reduce
d. dramatically reduce
e. None of the above.
29. Which statement is not true of I3 theory?
a. It organizes aggression risk factors into three categories.
b. It emphasizes the concept of self-regulation.
c. It is an expansion of the hostile attribution model.
d. It provides a structure for understanding the process by which a factor promotes aggression.
e. It specifies different ways in which aggression risk factors produce violence.
30. Robert Hare's research studies have found that criminal psychopaths appear to be deficient in:
a. linguistic processing.
b. common sense.
c. intelligence.
d. logic.
e. boundary apathy.
31. Psychopaths demonstrate normal appraisal of emotional cues and situations in the abstract (i.e., verbal discussion), but they are deficient in using emotional cues to guide their judgments and behavior in the process of living. This phenomenon is referred to as:
a. emotional paradox.
b. emotional imbalance.
c. habituation.
d. narcomania.
e. callous unemotionality.
32. Recent research using factor analysis on the behavioral characteristics suggests that there appear(s) to be ______ factor(s) that adequately describe(s) the behavioral dimensions of psychopaths.
a. only two
b. three or more
c. hundreds of
d. two or three
e. one central
33. APD stands for:
a. antisocial psychopathic disorder.
b. asocial personality disorder.
c. antisocial personality disorder.
d. atypical personal depression.
e. asymmetrical personality disorder.
34. Compared to criminal nonpsychopaths, criminal psychopaths are more likely to kill:
a. males who are strangers.
b. females who are strangers.
c. males who they know well.
d. females who they know well.
e. children under age ten.
35. Those researchers who advocate for a fourth core factor in psychopathy argue that ______ should be included with the three core factors.
a. low intelligence
b. arrogance
c. lack of guilt
d. impulsiveness
e. antisocial behavior
36. According to Quay, the actions of psychopaths are motivated by:
a. an abundance of sensations from the environment.
b. excessive neuropsychological need for thrills and excitement.
c. the behaviors of others.
d. interactions with society.
e. All of the above.
37. Which of the following statements about juvenile psychopathy is correct?
a. There are no instruments available for measuring juvenile psychopathy.
b. Juvenile psychopathy, as a construct, clearly does not exist.
c. Some researchers are concerned about the negative implications of labeling juveniles as psychopaths.
d. Juvenile psychopaths display behavior identical to that of adult psychopaths.
e. Juvenile psychopathy is correlated with sexual aggression.
38. Compared to male psychopaths, female psychopaths:
a. commit more property crime.
b. have higher recidivism rates.
c. are less aggressive and violent.
d. have lower recidivism rates.
e. receive higher PCL-R scores.
39. Neuropsychological indicators have been repeatedly found in psychopaths, as reflected in electrodermal (skin conductance) measures, cardiovascular, and other nervous system indices. These indicators are called:
a. confluence.
b. markers.
c. cloaca.
d. neuroindicators.
e. CVAs.
40. What is the most commonly used physiological indicator of emotional arousal?
a. SCR/GSR.
b. hypothalamus.
c. thalamus.
d. cerebral cortex.
e. hippocampus.
41. Generally speaking, the autonomic nervous system of the psychopath appears to be:
a. deformed.
b. insufficient.
c. ineffective.
d. overreactive.
e. underaroused.
42. Research by Robert Hare on the orienting response suggests that psychopaths:
a. do not habituate to stimuli easily.
b. give larger orienting responses to stimuli than nonpsychopaths.
c. usually exhibit no discernible orienting response to stimuli.
d. are less sensitive and alert to their environment.
e. have difficulty adjusting to new situations.
43. In general, the U.S. federal court system currently uses what insanity standard?
a. The Durham Rule
b. The M'Naghten Rule
c. ALI/Brawner Rule
d. Insanity Defense Reform Act
e. Amicus curiae
44. In Foucha v. Louisiana, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that defendants found NGRI could:
a. not be retried once they were no longer insane.
b. not remain hospitalized once they were no longer mentally disordered.
c. be hospitalized for as long as they remain dangerous.
d. be given medication to treat their disorder.
e. not be given medication to treat their disorder.
45. A rare but severe mental disorder believed to be linked to childbirth and similar to serious bipolar depression is postpartum:
a. blues.
b. psychopathy.
c. delusions.
d. psychosis.
e. depression.
46. 1ST stands for:
a. invasive sexual treatment.
b. intrusive sexual treatment.
c. incompetent to stand trial.
d. incentive system targets.
e. intensive schizophrenic treatment.
47. The right and wrong test refers to which one of the following insanity defenses?
a. Magna Carta
b. The M'Naghten Rule
c. ALI/Brawner Rule
d. Insanity Defense Reform Act
e. The Durham Rule
48. The most common result of a sucessful PTSD defense has been one of:
a. diminished responsibility.
b. guilty, but mentally ill.
c. not guilty by reason of insanity.
d. incompetent to stand trial.
e. guilty.
49. ______ refers to the phenomenon that occurs when a mental disorder or syndrome is unintentionally caused by a clinician or practitioner.
a. latrogenic
b. Tautological fallacy
c. Projection syndrome
d. Symptom substitution
e. Transference
50. Which diagnostic label has been associated with the iatrogenic phenomenon in recent years?
a. paranoid schizophrenia
b. histrionic personality disorder
c. post-traumatic stress disorder
d. delusional disorders
e. dissociative identity disorder
51. In the Supreme Court ruling Sell v. U.S. (2003), the Court ruled that:
a. in cases that did not involve violence, courts should be very careful in ordering medication to treat mentally disordered offenders who refuse the medication.
b. mentally disordered offenders should be sedated in the courtroom.
c. psychoactive drugs should not be ordered by any court against the wishes of the defendant, even if the mentally disordered offender tends to be violent.
d. mentally disordered offenders should be institutionalized until cured.
e. mentally disordered offenders cannot be given psychotropic medication during their trial.
52. Which disorder has been referred to as the "UFO of psychiatry" (Ondrovik & Hamilton, 1991)?
a. Multiple Personality Disorder
b. Postpartum Psychosis
c. Dysthymic Disorder
d. Bipolar II Disorder
e. Borderline Personality Disorder
53. What form of amnesia is the most widely used justification for an insanity defense or mitigation of criminal responsibility in the U.S. courts today?
a. chronic organic amnesia
b. spontaneous amnesia
c. Wernicke's amnesia
d. limited amnesia
e. Anxiolytic-lnduced Persisting Amnestic Disorder
54. The most common abuse of the elderly by caretakers is:
a. physical abuse.
b. emotional abuse.
c. neglect.
d. a combination of psychological abuse and neglect.
e. financial abuse.
55. In an important study of American children by Ullman and Straus (2003), it was discovered that approximately ______ percent of adolescents participated in child-to-parent violence during the previous 12 months.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 5
d. 10
e. None of the above.
56. Filicide refers to the killing of a(n):
a. infant.
b. child older than 24 hours.
c. child by the mother.
d. child within the first 24 hours after birth.
e. sibling.
57. What is not a category or symptom of mental or emotional reaction after childbirth?
a. postpartum blues
b. postpartum depression
c. postpartum psychosis
d. postpartum violence
e. all of the above are symptoms of mental or emotional reaction after childbirth
58. Families that are characterized by continuous cycles of physical aggression and violence inside the family are called:
a. multiassaultive.
b. genetically imbalanced.
c. dysfunctional.
d. maladaptive.
e. multigenerational aggressives.
59. Symptoms thought to frequently accompany Battered Woman Syndrome include all of the following except:
a. narcissism.
b. selflessness.
c. low self-esteem.
d. helplessness.
e. depression.
60. As a clinical diagnosis, Battered Woman Syndrome is thought to be a form of:
a. clinical depression.
b. paranoid disorder, undifferentiated type.
c. post-traumatic stress disorder.
d. bipolar disorder.
e. personality disorder.
61. A sibling killing a sister is called:
a. matricide.
b. particide.
c. parricide.
d. sororicide.
e. filicide.
62. Neonaticide refers to the killing of:
a. an infant.
b. a child older than 24 hours.
c. a child within the first 24 hours after birth.
d. a child by the mother.
e. a fetus.
63. George and Bill walk into a bar, order a drink and begin playing pool. Several minutes later, one of the bar's regulars, Steve, hollers across the bar and calls Bill a sissy girl. Bill punches Steve and a fist fight ensues. This scenario depicts an example of:
a. emasculated jealousy.
b. reactive aggression.
c. alcohol induced violence.
d. conduct disorder.
e. None of the above.
64. Males are more likely than females to perpetrate which act of family violence?
a. Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy
b. Neonaticide
c. elderly abuse
d. filicide
e. Shaken Baby Syndrome
65. According to La Fon (2002), the two basic types of psychological autopsies are:
a. suicide and equivocal death.
b. empirical and anecdotal.
c. compensatory and reconstructive.
d. testimonial and random.
e. aggressive and non-aggressive.
66. Homicides are:
a. deliberate
b. not premeditated
c. mental
d. provocations
e. interpersonal agreements
67. According to Hickey (1991), there was ______ documented female serial murders.
a. 56
b. 34
c. 20
d. 5
e. 100
68. Research by Fox and Levin found that most mass killings are motivated by:
a. profit.
b. fear.
c. power.
d. anger.
e. revenge.
69. When victims are chosen because the killer associates them with a primary target against whom revenge is sought, this is called:
a. murder by proxy.
b. associative murder.
c. associative selection.
d. loyalty murder.
e. None of the above.
70. Research has found that the two consistent characteristics of school shooters are:
a. cruelty to animals and easy access to weapons.
b. desire for revenge and history of drug use.
c. interest in unusual hobbies and history of drug use.
d. peer rejection and social rejection.
e. current depression diagnosis and history of violent behavior.
71. The weapon of choice in school homicides is:
a. razor blades.
b. beatings.
c. strangulations.
d. firearms.
e. sharp objects.
72. Which worker would be least at risk for Type I workplace violence?
a. Sandy, who works 6 p.m. until closing at the Burger King counter.
b. David, who works the midnight shift at the Mobil Station.
c. Gretchen, who works 3-11 p.m. as a nursing assistant at the hospital.
d. Al, who owns his own liquor store and often works alone 3 p.m.-midnight.
e. Tony, who drives a taxi at night.
73. An incident in which the offender commits serious physical or bodily harm to several workers within an organization is called:
a. workplace violence.
b. workplace aggression.
c. occupational violence.
d. occupational aggression.
e. All of the above.
74. Geographical profiling was initially designed to:
a. help investigations of arson.
b. help investigations of murder.
c. help investigations of rape.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
75. Research on rape reveals that, in general, men who rape:
a. are addicted to sex.
b. have uncontrollable or irresistible impulses to rape.
c. are suffering from various forms of mental illness.
d. suffer from displaced anger at their mothers.
e. None of the above.
76. In a sample of convicted rapists studied by Scully and Marolla:
a. an overwhelming majority had prior criminal records.
b. half did not have any prior criminal records.
c. 90% had previously been convicted of sexual offenses.
d. 40% admitted to having been victims of sexual assault.
e. None of the above.
77. What was NOT a finding in the study on convicted rapists by Scully and Marolla?
a. 12 previous rapes
b. 39 previous burglaries
c. 29 kidnappings
d. 25 sodomies
e. 21 first/second degree murders
78. The Groth rape typology is similar to the original MTC typology, except that Groth:
a. emphasizes the motives for the rape.
b. has more categories of rape behavior than the MTC.
c. has better behavioral descriptions of the categories.
d. emphasizes victim reactions.
e. includes homosexual rape.
79. Which one of the following is an example of a sex offender registration and notification law?
a. Shannon's Law
b. The Adam Walsh Child Protection and Safety Act
c. Violence Against Women Act
d. Copycat Law
e. Three Strikes Law
80. Most adult rapists:
a. regularly view pornography.
b. subscribe to attitudes and ideology that encourage men to dominate and control women.
c. are mentally disordered.
d. have considerable facial hair.
e. are married.
81. Abel and his associates found that men convicted of rape:
a. show high and nearly equal sexual arousal to portrayals of both violent, nonconsenting sexual acts and nonviolent, consenting sexual acts.
b. were more sexually aroused toward attractive victims than nonattractive victims.
c. felt they had little control over their sexual impulses.
d. have a very limited ability to fantasize.
e. were using drugs at the time of the crime.
82. How many categories did Groth divide rape behavior into?
a. six
b. two
c. five
d. four
e. three
83. According to Kilpatrick et al. (2000), victimization information on adult women gathered from the National Women's Survey indicate ______ of the rapists were strangers.
a. 14.6%
b. 19.5%
c. 24.4%
d. 21.9%
e. 9.8%
84. Research shows that a major motivation for rape is to:
a. harm or derogate the victim.
b. instigate sexual arousal in the victim.
c. act out a sexual fantasy.
d. satisfy a biological impulse.
e. b and d only
85. According to the text, although myths about rape are changing, college students continue to hold myths about ______ rape.
a. date
b. marital
c. homosexual
d. statutory
e. forcible
86. A sexual disorder in which bizarre fantasies are necessary for sexual excitement is called:
a. hebephilia.
b. paraphrenia.
c. pornography.
d. paraphilia.
e. voyeurism.
87. When a person demonstrates a long standing exclusive preference for children as both sexual and social companions.
a. regressed pedophile
b. fixated pedophile
c. exploitative pedophile
d. aggressive pedophile
e. sadistic pedophile
88. The ______ pedophile seeks children primarily to satisfy his sexual needs.
a. aggressive
b. fixated
c. exploitative
d. regressed
e. immature
89. Which of the following is correct?
a. Juvenile sex offenders are significantly less likely to re-offend than adult offenders.
b. Female juveniles who sexually offend are far more likely to have been sexually abused themselves than male juvenile sex offenders.
c. When female juveniles sexually offend, the victim is usually a child younger than themselves by 5 years or more.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
90. When pedophile offenders claim that poor impulse control, excessive use of alcohol and drugs, and an assortment of stressors in his life lead him to sexually molest children, he is using what theory of pedophilia?
a. Disinhibition theory
b. Blockage theory
c. Emotional congruence theory
d. Sexual arousal theory
e. Diffusion of responsibility theory
91. According to the DSM-IV, those individuals who are drawn to children and adults for sexual gratification are diagnosed as which type of pedophile?
a. exclusive type
b. nonexclusive type
c. mixed age type
d. combination type
e. heterogeneous type
92. Hebephilia is sexual contact by adult males with:
a. children.
b. inappropriate objects.
c. immediate, adult family members.
d. older non-family members.
e. young adolescents.
93. The term pedophilia is derived from the:
a. Spanish word for children.
b. Latin word for love of feet.
c. Greek word for child lover.
d. French word for paraphilia.
e. Italian word for abhorrent behavior.
94. Research on the victims of pedophilia indicates that:
a. sexual abuse produces long-term psychological problems in many children.
b. most victims recover quickly without any long-lasting effects.
c. boys recover quickly without psychological effects, but girls show long-lasting effects.
d. "mild" abuse does not generate any long-lasting effects.
e. victims who are groomed beforehand recover quicker, both physically and psychologically.
95. Which one of the following is NOT a notable commonality among aggressive pedophiles, rapists, and the prison population in general?
a. alcohol problems
b. high school failure/dropout
c. often female
d. unstable work history
e. low socioeconomic class
96. Evocative therapy is a treatment approach for sex offenders that focuses on:
a. helping offenders understand their motivations for sexual behavior.
b. increasing their empathy for their victims.
c. increasing their social competence.
d. a and b only
e. a and c only
97. Of the following treatment approaches, which has shown the most promise in the overall treatment of sexual offenders?
a. behavior modification
b. reality therapy
c. implosive therapy
d. relapse prevention
e. psychoeducational counseling
98. Green's concept of occupational crime would include all of the following except:
a. a bank officer embezzling funds.
b. a corporation illegally dumping hazardous waste.
c. a police officer using excessive force against a suspect.
d. a restaurant employee stealing food from the restaurant.
e. None of the above.
99. Green subdivides occupational crime into four categories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. organizational
b. professional
c. state-authority
d. corporate
e. individual
100. How does larceny-theft differ from burglary?
a. It doesn't involve unlawful entry.
b. It doesn't involve violent crime.
c. It is committed by professionals.
d. It is almost always carefully planned.
e. All of the above.