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Kindly help me with this. A patient and her husband present at the maternity hospital. She is 26 years old, gravida 2 para 1 and at term. Her antenatal course has been normal and her routine observations on admission are also normal. The fetal presentation is cephalic with 2/5 of the fetal head palpable above the pelvic brim. The membranes rupture spontaneously and her cervix is found to be 5 cm dilated on vaginal examination. The patient is relaxed and does not find her contractions painful. She is admitted to the labor ward she is already in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Her husband is asked to wait outside the labor ward. It is suggested that he go home for a while as the infant is unlikely to be born during the next 5 or 6 hours.
1. Has the patient been correctly managed?
2. What would have been the correct management of this patient?
3. Do you agree with the handling of the patient's husband?
4. What should the husband do if he stays with his wife during labor?
5. What positions you could advise the patient and her husband during labor?
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