Reference no: EM13779812

1. Private practitioners earn
a. considerably more than their colleagues in academia.
b. considerably less than their colleagues in academia.
c. about the same amount as their colleagues in academia.
d. about the same amount as their colleagues in academia when salaries are adjusted for the nine month academic year.

2. According to the text, the imbalance in the diversity of clinical psychologists
a. has changed dramatically in recent years.
b. has never been a significant issue.
c. must be addressed by quota systems in educational programs.
d. should begin to moderate as minority candidates work their way through the training "pipeline."

3. "Evidence-Based Practices" are
a. interventions based on the best research currently available.
b. yet to be developed, however research is being planned.
c. theoretically possible, but not currently in use.
d. clinics whose programs are aimed at developing empirically supported treat-ments.

4. Some groups that have been quick to create lists of evidence-based psychological interventions are
a. insurance companies.
b. specific groups within the APA.
c. colleges, universities and other educational institutions.
d. drug companies.

5. The training program style that is often referred to as the scientist-practioner model is called the
a. Boulder model.
b. Vail model.
c. Aspen model.
d. Denver model.

6. One of the most striking aspects about training programs for clinical psychol-ogists is

a. how similar they are to each other.

b. how they all rely on the university setting.
c. the considerable variation that exists across training approaches ..
d. how they all value research equally.

7. The theorist who emphasized the quality of the client-therapist relationship and considered it to be based on empathic listening was
a. Carl Rogers.
b. Sigmund Freud.
c. Alfred Binet.
d. James Cattell.

8. The Behavioral approach led to
a. treatments for sexual disorders, substance abuse, and anxiety in the 1920's and 1930's.
b. the development of experimental neuroses.
c. a move away from evaluating treatment effectiveness.
d. a belief that psychological problems were biological rather than learned.

9. The approach to treatment that emphasizes personal constructs as important determinants of human behavior is
a. behavior therapy.
b. Gestalt therapy.
c. cognitive therapy.
d. psychodynamic therapy.

10. As behavioral therapists accepted the importance of human cognitive pro-cesses in determining behavior and reactions
a. behavioral and cognitive therapies became much more distinct.
b. the traditional differences between the two approaches evaporated and were replaced by new, stronger theoretical differences.
c. cognitive and behavioral therapies began to merge and become an integrated approach.
d. none of the above, most behavior therapists still do not acknowledge the im-portance of cognitions.

11. The development of group therapies was facilitated by
a. a shortage of mental health personnel around the time of WWII.

b. a focus on testing which identified many people who needed therapy.

c. the fact that only a few orientations developed group approaches.

d. their limitation to inpatient populations

12. Approaches to marital therapy were developed by therapists with which orientation?
a. humanistic
b. behaviorist
c. cogn itive-behaviorist
d. all of the above

13. Research on the biological influences on clinical psychology
a. has had only a very minor impact on clinical practice.
b. has provided clinicians greater understanding of the foundations of behavioral and mental processes.
c. has led to greater support for behaviorist approaches.
d. has fostered another split between psychiatry and psychology.

14. This type of validity is measured by evaluating how well an assessment fore casts events.
a. Content
b. Concurrent
c. Predictive
d. Construct

15. When it comes to clinical judgment, clinicians have a tendency to
a. overestimate the validity of clinical intuition.
b. overestimate the utility of statistical prediction.
c. rely mostly on new constructs and measures to inform their decisions.
d. be aware of the distortions and false beliefs that plague intuitive reasoning.

16. The usefulness of computer assessment
a. has been well established through many empirical studies.
b. has remained controversial.
c. lies in its avoidance of most significant ethical issues.

d. is related to its exclusion of the clinician from the diagnostic process.

17. The breadth of an assessment device is referred to as its ; the depth of an assessment device is called its _
a. fidelity; bandwidth
b. bandwidth; fidelity

c. reliability; criterion validity.

d. construct validity; test-retest reliability.

18. Which of the following clinicians would be likely to consider traditional assessment procedures dehumanizing and harmful to the quality of the client clinician relationship?
a. Harold, a clinician trained by Carl Rogers.
b. Jamil, a psychodynamically oriented therapist.
c. Harriette, a clinician who utilizes Beck's theories and protocols.
d. none of the above

19. The most important aspect to an assessment report is that
a. it be as thorough and complete as possible, regardless of how long it be comes.
b. it contain very detailed data and scores so others can understand all bases for the conclusions.
c. it conveys an adequate amount of information in language that is accessible to the consumers of the report.
d. it conveys clearly the theoretical orientation of the clinician, especially in the conclusions and recommendations.

20. Which of the following is a type of behavioral observation that is also the cornerstone for many group, psychodynamic, and humanistic treatments?
a. thought sampling
b. contrived observation
c. role-playing
d. self -mon itori ng

21. An often-used technique for demonstrating the problems with eye-witness accounts is having an accomplice enter a classroom, pretend to shoot the professor, then leave. The class members are then asked to describe the "gunman." This is an example of
a. a virtual reality assessment.
b. a staged naturalistic event.
c. an unethical observational tool.

d. a role-playing test.

22. Physiological measures
a. have been used less frequently since the advent of virtual reality assessments.
b. have been demonstrated to be useful in only a few instances.
c. are mainly used by individuals involved in law enforcement.
d. are being used more often as clinicians become involved in treatment of disorders with clear physiological components.

23. Virtual reality assessments
a. engage clients in the process, but do not carryover to real-world situations.
b. have not been developed to the point where they are helpful, but progress is being made.
c. may be better predictors of performance, in some cases, than reality-based tests.
d. have replaced role-playing assessments in most cases.

24. Behavioral Avoidance Tests (BAT's)
a. are new procedures for inducing experimental neuroses.
b. are often used to assess overt anxiety.
c. have been demonstrated to be less useful that Behavioral Approach Tests.
d. were developed in the early 1900's, but are rarely used today.

25. Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between task complexity and interrater reliability?
a. As task complexity goes up, interrater reliability increases.
b. As task complexity decreases, interrater reliability increases.
c. As task complexity decreases, interrater reliability decreases.
d. There is no predictable relationship between task complexity and interrater reliability.

26. Values, interest and attitude assessment instruments remain in wide use, largely because
a. they have an exceptionally high reliability and validity.
b. they can be administered, scored and interpreted by almost anyone.
c. they can be used to stimulate personal and career exploration.
d. all of the above

27. The pattern of behavioral and psychological characteristics by which a person can be compared with other people is a definition of
a. intelligence.
b. aptitudes.
c. personality.
d. values.

28. The two major types of personal ity tests are:
a. self-report and observational.
b. objective and projective.
c. intrapsychic and theory-driven.
d. empirical and analytical.

29. According to Walsh and Betz (2001), the is the most useful psychological test available for assessing the degree and nature of emotional upset.
a. Rorschach
b. MMPI-2
c. WAISIII
d. Beck Depression Inventory (B DI)

30. The hypothesis that states that an individual's personality will influence how he or she responds to ambiguous stimuli is called
a. the projective hypothesis.
b. the triarchic theory.
c. the psychodynamic theory of response.
d. the "big five" trait hypothesis.

31. Training in the administration of which test was recently excluded from the curriculum recommendation for clinical training by the APA?
a. WAIS-III.
b. MMPI-2
c. Rorschach
d. Thematic Apperception Test

32. The extent to which tests can be used to specify treatment approaches or measure treatment outcomes is referred to as
a. treatment or clinical utility.

b. external or criterion validity.

c. clinical efficacy.

d. psychotherapy/assessment integration

33. The atmosphere of the cl i n ical setti ng shou Id reflect
a. the needs of the client.
b. a safe and collaborative stance.
c. a sense of support for the client's work.
d. all of the above

34. A common technique for developing insight is
a. encouraging catharsis.
b. direct confrontation of the client's weaknesses.
c. interpretation of a client's behavior to foster an understanding of errors of the past.
d. administering self-report measurements often over the course of treatment.

35. Catharsis, or the release of pent-up emotions in a safe environment,
a. is never appropriate in an outpatient therapeutic setting.
b. should be discouraged by the therapist.
c. is likely to make the client more frightened of certain emotions.
d. can help boost the client's emotional strength if encouraged and supported appropriately.

36. The placebo effect, where positive expectations lead to an improvement in a client's situation,
a. should be evidence that psychotherapy interventions really isn't all that beneficial.
b. are unique to psychotherapy, and should be capitalized upon.
c. highlights the role that faith, hope and expectation for change contribute to therapeutic change.
d. cannot be manipulated, so they are not important to the therapeutic alliance.

37. It is important for a clients to experience some small successes early in the treatment process because
a. even small changes help reinforce their confidence in their ability to change.
b. then clients can believe that the therapist is all-powerful and therefore will stick with therapy.

c. if the successes are too large in the beginning, clients might get discouraged if things slow down later in the process.
d. all of the above

38. Which of the following is not one of the "four horsemen" of professional ethics?
a. confidentiality
b. competency
c. conflict of interest
d. cari ng coherence

39. Which of the following would be a likely goal a person-centered therapist would set for his or her client?
a. improving interpersonal communication
b. increased satisfaction with work and play
c. the ability to love unconditionally
d. none of the above, person-centered therapists don't set goals for their clients

40. When an empathic therapist tries to understand what it would be like to be his client, Rogers would say he is using a/an
a. internal frame of reference.
b. external frame of reference.
c. empathic congruence.
d. reflective stance.

41. The person-centered therapist's primary responsibility is to
a. encourage the client to explore positive directions for growth.
b. provide an atmosphere in which the client is comfortable exploring thoughts and feelings.
c. truly like the client.
d. plan homework assignments that will encourage growth activities between sessions.

42. Congruence in person-centered therapy means
a. that the therapist must say whatever is on her mind.
b. that the therapist must maintain a professional facade so as not in influence the client's understanding of his own feelings.
c. the therapist is genuine and reacts honestly to what the client says.

d. "going with the gut" in reacting to the material the client brings up.

43. A primary goal of Gestalt therapy is to
a. help clients become aware of genuine feelings they have disowned.
b. recognize the feelings and values that they have borrowed from other people.
c. both a and b.
d. neither a nor b.

44. A Gestalt therapist is likely to be and that a person-centered therapist.
a. more directive; less confrontative
b. less confrontative; less directive
c. more directive; more confrontative
d. more empathic; less concerned about avoidance

45. Which of the following techniques are likely to be included in rational-emotive behavior therapy?
a. role-playing
b. sensory-awareness exercises
c. desensitization
d. all of the above

46. Assessment in cognitive therapy differs from assessment in behavior therapy in that
a. cognitive therapists are more likely to measure behaviors throughout the course of treatment.
b. cognitive therapists are more interested in factors surrounding the client's automatic thought distortions.
c. it is much less complete.
d. cognitive therapists believe that everyone is capable of benefiting from treatment so they pay little attention to client factors that relate to the ability to engage in the necessary attitude.

47. The process whereby a therapist and client engage in active examination of the client's cognitive distortions is called
a. collaborative empiricism.
b. systematic desensitization.
c. psychoeducation.
d. a therapeutic alliance.

48. It is especially important for cognitive therapists to educate and "socialize" their clients into treatment because
a. these clients are usually less prepared for the therapeutic process.
b. the techniques are so complicated that it takes a great deal of time to learn them.
c. the therapist may seem accusatory or unsupportive as he or she engages the client in various therapeutic interventions.
d. they must be sure to not bring up unconscious material.

49. The technique in which clients are asked a series of questions aimed at exposing their distorted beliefs and assumptions is called
a. multiphasic questioning.
b. Socratic questioning.
c. clarification questioning.
d. Ellis' rational-emotive questioning.

50. Individuals tend to pay much more attention to information that supports their beliefs than that which refutes it. This is called the
a. collaborative bias.
b. confirmation bias.
c. tendency to catastrophize.
d. none of the above

51. Which of the following would NOT be considered an integrative technique or Complementary/Alternative Medicine (CAM) approach?
a. use of over-the-counter herbs and food supplements
b. chiropractic and massage therapy
c. hypnosis
d. applied kinesiology and biofeedback

52. Many CAM therapies remain unevaluated,
a. but others have been determined to be unhelpful, and even possibly harmful.
b. but those such as "rebirthing" and "reparenting" therapy have been deemed quite helpful.
c. so they are never used by competent clinicians.

d. but even empirically-oriented psychotherapists embrace them and readily integrate them into their practices.

53. Research indicates that spirituality
a. should not be addressed in clinical psychology, since most clinicians are not theologians and there is no reason be believe it is important.
b. is not a relevant issue for most clients, and rarely comes up in therapy.
c. regularly emerges as a resilience or protective factor or asset in the risk and resilience literature.
d. is not related to quality of life issues, stress reduction or increased well-being.

54. Mindfulness
a. is described as "intentionally bringing one's attention to the internal and external
b. has been integrated into cognitive-behavioral approaches.
c. appears to be a promising approach for some types of clients with certain types of problems.
d. all of the above

55. Research on using the Internet for psychotherapy indicates that
a. the Internet can be quite effective in delivering certain treatments.
b. there is strong evidence that Internet interventions add advantages to clinicadministered treatments, especially for severe disorders such as schizophrenia.
c. Internet interventions are clearly better than clinic-administered treatments, especially for children.
d. clinicians are opposed to the process because they are rarely involved in the treatment.

56. According to the text, internet interventions
a. have been determined to be too great an ethical risk to continue.
b. will soon replace face-to-face interventions because of their cost-effectiveness.
c. will likely continue to grow, in spite of concerns about their ethical application.
d. have been deemed to not be useful and their use is being discontinued.

57. Which of the following is NOT one of the models of psychotherapy integration described in the chapter?
a. theoretical integration
b. common factors
c. internet integration

d. technical integration

58. Which is NOT on of the criteria of the Task Force classifications?
a. Well-established/ efficacious and specific
b. Promising
c. Not efficacious/ diluted results
d. Probably efficacious/ possibly efficacious
59. Which of the following statements about clinicians' use of outcome research findings in their practices is true?
a. Most clinicians are fully aware of research findings and wholeheartedly embrace them in their practices.
b. Most clinicians are not especially well-informed about these findings.
c. Clinicians tend to overestimate the valuable of evidence-based practices when they become aware of them.
d. Clinicians tend to underestimate their own skills and techniques once they become aware of research findings.

60. Which of the following is NOT a therapist characteristic associated with demonstrable effectiveness?
a. strong therapeutic alliance
b. strict adherence to a theoretical approach
c. higher levels of empathy
d. strong goal consensus and collaboration with the client

6l. Which of the following therapist factors probably increase effectiveness?
a. positive regard towards the client
b. appropriate self-disclosure
c. high quality of relational interpretations
d. all of the above

62. Research on the therapeutic alliance indicates that
a. a better therapeutic alliance is associated with better treatment outcomes.
b. there may be an effect between therapeutic alliance and treatment outcomes.
c. there is no demonstrable relationship between therapeutic alliance and treatment outcomes.

d. there are only a few studies that have addressed this issue adequately.

63. Better outcomes for group therapy members are achieved when
a. group members clearly understand how the group is being run and what is expected of them.
b. the group is cohesive and provides accurate feedback to members.
c. the group encourages interpersonal learning and supportive interactions.
d. all of the above

64. AOHO
a. is one of the most common childhood disorders.
b. affects more girls than boys.
c. usually appears after the third grade when school work becomes more demanding.
d. is almost always outgrown in adulthood.

65. Conduct disorder (CD)
a. is more severe than Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD).
b. is often preceded by ODD.
c. is referred to in the OSM as a disruptive behavior disorder.
d. all of the above

66. Prevalence of ODD in children range from _
a. 2 to 10
b. 4 to 12
c. 4 to 16
d. 2 to 16

67. Major depressive disorder
a. is almost never seen in children or adolescents.
b. is more common in male adolescents than female adolescents.
c. may present different symptom patterns based on the child's developmental stage.
d. have replaced role-playing assessments in most cases.

68. The OSM-IV Anxiety disorders include all of the following except:
a. separation anxiety disorder.
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
c. post traumatic stress disorder.

d. test anxiety disorder.

69. Autistic disorders are characterized by difficulties in
a. language development.
b. social functioning.
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

70. Phantom pain
a. is easily treatable through cognitive-behavioral interventions.
b. refers to pain that comes and goes mysteriously.
c. is difficult to treat because its origins and processes are unknown,
d. is no longer considered an area for health psychologists to concern themselves with.

7l. Anticipatory nausea
a. is an example of a classically conditioned response.
b. can cause patients to forego treatments that could be lifesaving.
c. is poorly controlled by standard anti-nausea medications.
d. all of the above.

72. Several types of psychotherapeutic interventions have been studied for treati ng the depression that often accompan ies H IV/AI OS diagnosis. Which ones were found to be the most helpful?
a. behavioral and cognitive-behavioral
b. behavioral and interpersonal therapies
c. interpersonal therapy and supportive therapy and antidepressant medication
d. behavior therapy and cognitive-behavioral therapy plus antidepressant medication

73. The transtheoretical model in health psychology
a. addresses cognitive factors involved in people's decision to change health-related behaviors.
b. assesses a client's readiness and ability to inhibit certain behaviors.
c. assesses a client's ability to perform certain behaviors.

d. all of the above.

74. Recommending that a depressed client increase his or her activity level and get regular exercise is an example of
a. an improper use of therapeutic resources.
b. an evidence-based intervention that falls outside the traditionally defined roles of the psychotherapist.
c. an old-fashioned approach that is not longer considered valid.
d. an intervention that is based in folk-wisdom.

75. The theory that describes several perceptual sets patients maintain that affect treatment compliance or adherence is called
a. the health belief model.
b. the health compliance model.
c. the general adaptation model.
d. a contingency contract.

76. An emotional concomitant to left hemisphere brain damage is often
a. frustration.
b. euphoria.
c. schizophrenia.
d. depression.

77. Among the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, consistent with damage to the prefrontal cortex, are
a. nastiness and bitterness.
b. many behaviors than cannot be seen, only inferred.
c. lack of energy and spontaneity.
d. symptoms that go away over time without treatment.

78. Research on learning disabilities indicates that many language-based disabilities
a. are related to dysfunctions in the left-hemisphere.
b. correlate with microstructural variations in certain left-hemisphere pathways.
c. may be related to differing structures in the left-hemisphere.
d. all of the above

79. Ectopias are
a. the outer layers of brain regions.
b. tests for learning disabilities.
c. misplaced brain cells .:
d. implicated in schizophrenia.

80. A child who scores very high on the verbal subscales of the WISC-IV but displays poor spatial abilities and visual motor skills may be diagnosed as having
a. depression.
b. schizophrenia.
c. a nonverbal learning disability.
d. dyslexia.

8l. Because the symptoms can be subtle, a child with nonverbal learning disabilities may be labeled
a. as having emotional problems.
b. as being behaviorally disturbed.
c. uncooperative.
d. all of the above

82. Which of the following developments has led to an increasing need for good neuropsychologists?
a. the development and refinement of neuroimaging techniques.
b. the increased understanding of the neurological correlates of many disorders.
c. medical advances that enable individuals to live long after strokes and other brain trauma and therefore to need rehabilitation.
d. all of the above

83. Criminal profiling remains somewhat controversial because
a. the research is gathered from prisoners, and therefore is not reliable.
b. they are racially biased.
c. inaccurate profiles are quite common.
d. none of the above

84. Under which of the following cases might a "parental fitness" evaluation be requested to determine if the parental relationship should be terminated?
a. A child has been found to be obese.

b. Parents have had a hard time staying employed and the child comes to school
dirty.
c. Parents remain addicted to drugs and have left the child alone for extended
periods of time, even after attempts have been made to address this issue.
d. A parent fails to make timely child support payments.

85. The legal definition of parenting fitness
a. is determined on a case by case basis by expert testimony.
b. is determined by each state.
c. is consistent across states.
d. can be found in the DSMIV-TR.

86. What is a reason custody mediation might be undertaken?
a. Protracted custody battles can leave families emotionally and financially challenged.
b. Mediation helps the parties emotionally accept the situation.
c. Mediation can help settle disputes and help establish a stable co-parenting relationsh i p.
d. all of the above

87. What relatively new role for clinicians has emerged as more couples seek and obtain joint custody of children after divorces?
a. parenting coordinator
b. parenti ng caseworker
c. family therapist
d. none of the above, there is little role for clinicians once the divorce is final.

88. Federal Rule of Evidence 702 concerns
a. the reliability of scientific expert testimony.
b. the applicability of the testimony to the facts of the case.
c. the qualifications of the expert who is testifying.

d. all of the above

89. What term did the medical profession use to attempt to block psychologists' reimbursement for psychological services?
a. psychoanalysis
b. psychotherapy
c. medical psychotherapy
d. psychopharmacology

90. The "medical offset" refers to
a. a tendency for medical professionals to avoid referring patients for psychological services.
b. medical costs being lower for individuals who receive mental health services.
c. the higher costs involved to insurers who cover mental health treatment.
d. all of the above

91. Managed care
a. has embraced and fostered relationships with psychologists.
b. has always acknowledged the "medical offset."
c. has had a major impact on psychological practice.
d. supports fee-for-service health care.

92. One of the complaints psychologists often have about utilization review is that
a. individuals without credentials may be making treatment decisions.
b. client confidentiality is threatened by the information sought by the insurancecompanies.
c. cl ients may not be receivi ng adeq uate treatment in the interest of cost -containment.
d. all of the above

93. A factor that may be supporting change in some managed care philosophies is
a. fewer psychologists willing to work under utilization review.
b. the increasing number of therapies that have been strongly supported byempirical evidence as being effective.
c. the rise in the self-help movement.
d. all of the above

94. When it comes to gaining prescription privileges
a. psychologists are remarkably united in their support.
b. there is a great deal of controversy within the field of psychology.
c. the medical profession is eager to welcome psychologists aboard.

d. it is inevitable that psychologists will all be required to train and apply for them soon.95. A reason that GRE scores are important to admission committees is that
a. it has predictive validity for success in graduate school.
b. it represents data that can directly be compared across candidates.
c. it is considered a valid indicator of a student's potential for success.
d. all of the above

96. The GRE scores
a. may not be as valid in predicting the success of minority or disadvantaged students.
b. are required for all graduate-level programs in clinical psychology.
c. are routinely reported by all graduate programs so good data is available on the average scores for students accepted into graduate programs.
d. tend to be higher for PsyO program applicants than for PhO program applicants.

97. While overall GPA is important to admission committees, some committees 
a. grades a student attained in psychology courses.
b. patterns of grades as a student progressed through college.
c. grades a student attained in statistics or research design courses.
d. all of the above

98. In seeking letters of recommendation, it is helpful for a student to ask
a. senators, governors, or religious leaders.
b. family friends who work in the field.
c. professors who have had the student in a class.
d. professors who are familiar with the student's research and leadership skills.

99. By organizing application materials before giving them to the individual who is going to write letters of reference, a student
a. might come across as somewhat compulsive.
b. can minimize errors that might occur.
c. could aggravate the person doing the recommending.

d. all of the above

100. A personal statement should help the admissions committee understand that the applicant is
a. intellectually curious and highly motivated.
b. hard-working and conscientious.
c. interested in specific areas of research.
d. all of the above