Does that rule make sense from the perspective

Reference no: EM131132341

Many people think that liability for accidents should be based in part on negligence. For example, a negligence rule might state that if two cars collide while one driver is following traffic laws while the other is not, the second driver should bear full responsibility, while the first should bear none. Does that rule make sense from the perspective of economic efficiency? Why or why not?

Reference no: EM131132341

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