Reference no: EM131338163
Q1. Opinion leaders are sometimes referred to as ________.
a. buzz marketers
b. the upper class
c. the influentials
d. the middle class
e. networkers
Q2. Large business purchasers usually call for detailed product specifications, written purchase orders, careful supplier searches, and formal approval. These are all examples of how the business buying decision process is more ________ than the consumer buying decision process is.
a. creative
b. relationship-oriented
c. independent
d. concentrated
e. formalized
Q3. A(n) ________ is a descriptive thought that a person has about something.
a. motive
b. belief
c. perception
d. lifestyle
e. attitude
Q4. Of the following, the best starting point to understanding how consumers respond to various marketing efforts is the ________ model of a buyer's behavior.
a. stimulus-response
b. subculture
c. belief
d. societal
e. generational
Q5. Researchers found that a number of well-known brands tended to be strongly associated with one particular trait, such as Jeep with 'ruggedness.' Which of the following terms would a marketer use to describe a specific mix of human traits that may be attributed to a particular brand?
a. brand personality
b. brand equity
c. new product
d. product image
e. brand perception
Q6. ________ describes changes in an individual's behavior arising from experience.
a. Aggressiveness
b. Learning
c. Lifestyle
d. Perception
e. Cognitive dissonance
Q7. According to Freud's theories, people are ________ many of the psychological forces shaping their behavior.
a. status-driven about
b. unaware of
c. aware of
d. socially conscious of
e. unsure of
Q8. ________ are groups to which an individual wishes to belong, as when a teenage basketball player hopes to play someday for the Los Angeles Lakers.
a. Leading adopter groups
b. Aspirational groups
c. Membership groups
d. Social class groups
e. Leisure groups
Q9. A customer's lifestyle can be measured using the AIO dimensions. What does AIO stand for?
a. Activities, Interests, Opinions
b. Adoptions, Interests, Occupations
c. Accommodation, Investment, Orientation
d. Acknowledgement, Interests, Observations
e. Achievement, Involvement, Organizations
Q10. ________ is never simple, yet understanding it is the essential task of marketing management.
a. Understanding the difference between primary and secondary data
b. Consumer buying behavior
c. Consumption pioneering
d. Brand personality
e. Early adoption
Q11. A product's position is based on important attributes as perceived by ________.
a. suppliers
b. competitors
c. consumers
d. managers
e. market conditions
Q12. A company or market offer can be differentiated along the lines of product, image, services, channels, or ________.
a. nonprice factors
b. customer service
c. people
d. location
e. prices
Q13. By studying its less loyal buyers, a company can detect which brands are most ________ with its own.
a. similar
b. competitive
c. often overlooked
d. complementary
e. used
Q14. The markets you have chosen to serve in four western states can be effectively reached and served. You would tell the marketing manager that these segments are ________.
a. substantial
b. actionable
c. profitable
d. accessible
e. measurable
Q15. Your firm has decided to localize its products and services to meet local market demands. A good approach to use would be ________ segmentation.
a. customer
b. image
c. geographic
d. benefit
e. end-use
Q16. When a company identifies the parts of the market it can serve best and most profitably, it is practicing ________.
a. segmenting
b. concentrated marketing
c. mass marketing
d. market targeting
e. differentiation
Q17. The answer to the customer's question, "Why should I buy your brand?" is found in the ________.
a. quality image
b. customer services
c. value proposition
d. pricing and promotion structure
e. differentiation
Q18. Which group determines a product's position relative to competing products?
a. consumers
b. wholesalers
c. manufacturers
d. suppliers
e. retailers
Q19. Niche marketing offers smaller companies the opportunity to compete by focusing their limited resources on serving niches that may be ________ or ________ larger companies.
a. unknown by; desired by
b. too large; undesirable to
c. unimportant to; overlooked by
d. disappointed by; geographically far from
e. unimportant to; desired by
Q20. You have just created the "perfect" ad. It communicates the full mix of benefits upon which the brand is differentiated and positioned. This full positioning of the brand is called ________.
a. its value proposition
b. value profiling
c. differentiated marketing
d. target marketing
e. capturing the consumers' attention
Q21. ________ products are distributed exclusively in only one or a few outlets per market area and they have unique characteristics or brand identification.
a. Unsought
b. Tertiary
c. Transactional
d. Convenience
e. Specialty
Q22. ________ occurs when a company introduces additional items in a given product category under the same brand name, such as new flavors, forms, colors, ingredients, or package sizes.
a. Service variability
b. A product mix
c. A line extension
d. Interactive marketing
e. Service intangibility
Q23. ________ products are those products that are purchased for further processing or for use in conducting a business.
a. Unsought
b. Specialty
c. Shopping
d. Industrial
e. Convenience
Q24. The service profit chain consists of five links. Which of the following is one of these five links?
a. increased service inseparability
b. decreased cost
c. broader service mix
d. increased service variability
e. satisfied and loyal customers
Q25. An increasing number of retailers and wholesalers have created their own ________, also called store brands.
a. shopping products
b. unsought products
c. private brands
d. specialty products
e. service variability
Q26. Developing a product involves defining the benefits that it will offer. These benefits are communicated and delivered by ________ such as quality, features, and style and design.
a. marketing tools
b. product attributes
c. private brands
d. product mixes
e. consumer products
Q27. Service perishability means that ________.
a. evaluation of services is subjective and it changes from customer to customer
b. the quality of services depends on who provides them as well as when, where, and how they are provided
c. services cannot be stored for later sale or use
d. services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are bought
e. services cannot be separated from their providers, whether the providers are people or machines
Q28. Which of the following is most likely to be seen as the major enduring asset of a company, outlasting the company's specific products and facilities?
a. specialty products
b. convenience products
c. staples
d. unsought products
e. brands
Q29. A(n) ________ is a name, term, sign, symbol, design, or a combination of these, that identifies that maker or seller of a product or service.
a. co-branding
b. internal marketing
c. brand
d. external marketing
e. service
Q30. Service intangibility means that ________.
a. services cannot be separated from their providers, whether the providers are people or machines
b. the quality of services depends on who provides them as well as when, where, and how they are provided
c. services cannot be stored for later sale or use
d. services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are bought
e. evaluation of services is subjective and it changes from customer to customer
Q31. A review of the sales, costs, and profit projections for a new product to find out whether they satisfy the company's objectives is called a ________.
a. vendor analysis
b. portfolio analysis
c. business analysis
d. SWOT analysis
e. concept analysis
Q32. Which of the following statements best explains why idea screening may be the most import step of new product development?
a. It increases the number of ideas generated.
b. It saves the company money in product development costs by giving the green light to only the product ideas that are likely to be profitable.
c. Some ideas that will become market disasters may be originally viewed favorably by the idea screeners.
d. It gives research and development team members an opportunity to gather consumer feedback.
e. Some potentially profitable ideas may be ill perceived by the idea screeners.
Q33. In which stage of the PLC will promotional expenditures be especially high in an attempt to create consumer awareness?
a. adoption
b. product development
c. growth
d. maturity
e. introduction
Q34. The creation of a successful new product depends on a company's understanding of its ________ and its ability to deliver ________ to customers.
a. customers, competitors, and markets; superior value
b. product, marketing mix, and marketing strategy; functional features
c. product life cycle, legal responsibilities, and social responsibilities; innovations
d. customers, brands, products; product images
e. competitors, distributors, and employees; new styles
Q35. The search for new-product ideas should be ________ rather than ________.
a. impulsive; strategic
b. systematic; haphazard
c. employee-centered; customer-centered
d. intermittent; continuous
e. segmented; holistic
Q36. Many marketers are using simulated marketing technologies to reduce the cost of ________.
a. concept testing
b. marketing strategy development
c. product development
d. concept development
e. test marketing
Q37. The purpose of idea generation is to create a ________ of ideas. The purpose of succeeding stages is to ________ that number.
a. large number; increase
b. large number; reduce
c. small number; increase
d. small number; reduce
e. limited number; sustain
Q38. ________ is a new-product development approach in which one company department works to complete its stage of the process before passing the new product along to the next department and stage.
a. Simultaneous product development
b. Sequential product development
c. Product life-cycle analysis
d. Micromarketing
e. Team-based product development
Q39. Immediately after concept testing, a firm would engage in the ________ stage.
a. idea screening
b. marketing strategy development
c. business analysis
d. product development
e. test marketing
Q40. Which of the following is necessary for successful new-product development?
a. a holistic and sequential product development approach
b. an innovation management system and sequential product development
c. a market pioneer mindset and a holistic approach
d. a customer-centered, team-based, systematic approach
e. a team-based, innovation-management approach