Reference no: EM131147642

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
l. Which of the following is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's goals by planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling personnel?
m. marketer
n. entrepreneur
o. general ist
p. manager

2. Jolene, a manager, delegates the responsibility for a project to Lee, her subordinate.  Jolene is most likely involved in which function of the management process?
a. staffing
b. leading
c. organizing
d. motivating

3. In the management process, which of the following is an activity associated with the leading  function?
a. developing procedures
b. maintaining employee morale
c. training new employees
d. setting performance standards

4. In general, how many human resource employees would be on staff for a firm with 500 total  employees?
a.5
b. 1
c. 2
d.lO

5. Which of the following human resource management specialties calls for collecting data to  write job descri ptions?
a. job training specialist
b. EEO coordinator
c. compensation manager
d. job analyst

6. An HR generalist at Wilson Manufacturing has been assigned to the sales department to provide HR management assistance as needed. Which of the following best describes the structure of the HR services provided at Wilson Manufacturing?
a. embedded HR units
b. H R centers of expertise
c. transactional HR groups
d. corporate HR groups

7. Royall & Company streamlined its annual benefits package enrollments by digitizing and aggregating the former paper benefits reports, electronic spreadsheets, and benefit summaries and providing the materials at a single location on the company intranet. Royall is most likely using a(n) _
a. query processor
b. web portal
c. spam filter
d. software license

8. Which of the following would provide the best solution for a global firm's HR department that  needs to immediately provide employees with corporate information?
a. network monitoring
b. streaming desktop video
c. electronic outsourcing
d. productivity software

9. Tara Robles earned an MBA degree and is now an HR manager for a Fortune 500 company. In which of the following tasks does Tara's advanced degree benefit her the most?
a. using application service providers to expedite employee services
b. distributing pension payments to retiring employees
c. recruiting college graduates for entry-level positions
d. assisting upper management in formulating business strategies

10. Evidence-based human resource management relies on all of the following types of evidence EXCEPT _
a. existing data
b. research studies
c. qualitative opinions
d. scientific rigor

11. Paul is a 49-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is most likely intended to protect Paul from discrimination?
a. Executive Order 11246
b. Equal Pay Act of 1963
c. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
d. Executive Order 11375

12. Which of the following does NOT participate in the issuance of uniform guidelines?
a. Department of Labor
b. Department of Justice
c. Better Business Bureau
d. Civil Service Commission

13. The provides that a person who commits a crime of violence motivated by gender shall be liable to the party injured.
a. Pregnancy Discrimination Act
b. Civil Rights Act of 1991
c. Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973
d. Federal Violence Against Women Act of 1994

14. Which of the following is NOT a form of sexual harassment according to EEOC guidelines?
a. unwelcome sexual advances that create an intimidating work environment
b. physical conduct of a sexual nature that creates an offensive work environment
c. verbal conduct of a sexual nature that unreasonably interferes with work performance
d. mutually consensual physical conduct of a sexual nature between co-workers

15. Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim  of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that  Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable  for the actions of the male employee.  Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the plaintiff's claim that Sanders is liable for the male employee's conduct?
a. The male employee made sexual advances towards the plaintiff on a daily basis.
b. The male employee physically threatened the plaintiff on three occasions.
c. The male employee was required by HR to participate in a sexual harassment awareness course.
d. The male employee's conduct significantly interfered with the plaintiff's ability to perform her job.

16. Which of the following tests for adverse impact and involves demonstrating that the employer's policy either intentionally or unintentionally excludes members of a protected group?
a. BFOQ approach
b. restricted policy
c. systemic method
d. McDonnell-Douglas test

17. According to , an employer can claim that an employment practice is a bona fide occupational qualification for performing the job.
a. Vocational Rehabi I itation Act of 1973
b. Executive Orders 11246 and 11375
c. 1972 Equal Opportunity Act
d. Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act

18. The application requirements for Western Airlines pilot positions require candidates to have logged at least 200 hours piloting an aircraft within the previous 36 months. In addition, applicants must have 2,500 hours of experience in the air with at least 1,000 hours as the
commanding pilot of a commercial airplane. A four-year college degree is also required. Jeff Sanchez, who is Hispanic, applied for a position as a pilot and was rejected because he has a degree from a 2-year college and only 2,000 hours of flight experience. Jeff is suing Western
Airlines for discriminatory hiring practices.
Which of the following statements is most likely relevant to this court case against Western Airlines?
a. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prevents firms, such as Western Airlines, from discriminating when age is a BFOQ.
b. Most pilots at Western Airlines belong to labor unions and are involved in collective bargaining arrangements detrimental to the industry.
c. The job requirements for pilots at Western Airlines are a business necessity due to the human risks associated with hiring unqualified applicants.
d. As a global firm, Western Airlines can easily establish a prima facie case of discrimination based on race.

19. Which of the following is most likely an example of a discriminatory selection standard?
a. requiring engineer applicants to meet specific height standards
b. requiring a high school teacher applicant to have a four-year college degree
c. measuring a software designer applicant's knowledge about a computer language
d. asking prison guard applicants to reveal their arrest records

20. The of the California Energy Commission indicates that the organization assesses  and acts through public and private partnerships to improve energy systems that promote a  strong economy and a healthy environment.
a. code of ethics
b. vision statement
c. mission statement
d. strategic plan

21. A company's strategy identifies how to build and strengthen the business's long-term competitive position in the marketplace.
a. competitive
b. corporate-level
c. horizontal
d. functional

22. Which of the following best explains the increased success of mergers and acquisitions over the last decade?
a. federal legislation regarding employee wages and rights
b. consistent involvement of human resource management
c. improvements in wireless communication technology
d. fewer restrictions regarding corporate globalization

23. Which of the following refers to a process for assigning financial and nonfinancial goals to the HR management-related chain of activities required for achieving the company's strategic aims and for monitoring results?
a. strategy map
b. HR feedback scale
c. digital dashboard
d. H R scorecard

24. MAX Computers manufactures affordable laptops and desktops at its factory in Arizona. MAX has experienced a moderate amount of financial success, but upper management wants the firm to grow at a faster rate and become a bigger player in the highly competitive
computer market. The firm's greatest problems relate to its employees. Employee turnover is high-most employees at MAX leave within two years or less of being hired. In addition, the rate of productivity among employees is not as high as executives would like. The vice
president of human resources is considering moving MAX towards a high-performance work system. Which of the following best supports the argument that MAX should move toward a high- performance work system?
a. Using advanced recruitment and hiring practices will allow MAX to improve employee productivity.
b. MAX competitors regularly use benchmarking to compare their employees to those in other firms.
c. Outsourcing clerical tasks would enable MAX to raise employee salaries and increase productivity.
d. MAX customers purchase new computers every two years according to online customer surveys.

25. MAX Computers manufactures affordable laptops and desktops at its factory in Arizona. MAX has experienced a moderate amount of financial success, but upper management wants the firm to grow at a faster rate and become a bigger player in the highly competitive
computer market. The firm's greatest problems relate to its employees. Employee turnover is high--most employees at MAX leave within two years or less of being hired. In addition, the rate of productivity among employees is not as high as executives would like. The vice
president of human resources is considering moving MAX towards a high-performance work system.
Which of the following questions is most relevant to MAX's decision to move toward a high- performance work system?
a. How will qualitative performance measures address the needs of MAX employees in regards to the firm's benefits plan?
b. What economic and demographic trends in the U.S. are related to the employee turn over rate at MAX?
c. How would the implementation of self-managing work teams affect employee morale and work standards at MAX?
d. What roles should line managers, staff managers, and HR managers at MAX play in performance appraisals?

26. Which of the following terms refers to the process of comparing and analyzing the practices of one firm with those of a high-performing company?
a. outsourcing
b. diversifying
c. strategizing
d. benchmarking

27. All of the following are commonly addressed in an HR audit EXCEPT _
a. job descriptions
b. exempt workers
c. communication expenses
d. workers' compensation benefits

28. Like the scientific method, evidence-based HR management should have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT _
a. subjectivity
b. prediction
c. replication
d. quantification

29. A manager uses the information in a job analysis for all of the following EXCEPT _
a. determining appropriate compensation
b. complying with FCC regulations
c. providing accurate performance appraisals
d. assessing training requirements

30. Allison, a manager at a large clothing retail store, needs to determine essential duties that have not been assigned to specific employees. Which of the following would most likely provide Allison with this information?
a. job context
b. performance standards
c. work activities
d. job analysis

3l. During the job analysis process, the primary purpose of having workers review and modify data collected about their current positions is to _
a. provide a legal benchmark for employer lawsuits
b. encourage employees to seek additional job training
c. validate the job specification list provided by HR
d. confirm that the information is correct and complete

32. A is the time it takes to complete a job.
a. work cycle
b. work week
c. duty
d. shift

33. Experts at the performed the earl iest form of job analysis and published the Dictionary of Occupational Titles.
a. BLS
b. EEOC
c. DOL
d. DHS

34. According to the , an individual must have the requisite skills, educational background, and experience to perform a job's essential functions.
a. ADA
b. FCC
c. SIC
d. DOL

35. Which of the following terms refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition?
a. Job enlargement
b. Job enrichment
c. Job reengineering
d. Job rotation

36. Who argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment?
a. Frederick Taylor
b. Abraham Maslow
c. Frederick Herzberg
d. Adam Smith

37. Which of the following best supports the argument that jobs should be described in terms of  competencies rather than duties?
a. New employees in high-performance work systems receive extensive job skills training for their specific positions.
b. In high-performance work systems, employees serve as team members rotating among various jobs.
c. Managers in global firms are empowered to implement job rotation, job enlargement, and job enrichment in order to maximize productivity.
d. Globalization and telecommuting require workers to be able to self-manage and perform duties without close supervision.

38. Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor and the number of employees required?
a. personnel ratio
b. ratio analysis
c. ratio matrix
d. forecasting ratio

39. When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use _
a. personnel forecasts
b. skills inventories
c. estimated sales trends
d. scatter plots

40. Which of the following plays the greatest role in determining the best medium for a job advertisement?
a. graphics used in the advertisement
b. time allowed to fill the position
c. job compensation and salary
d. skills needed for the job

41. Newton Manufacturing is using a private employment agency to recruit individuals for management positions. As the HR manager at Newton, you need to ensure that applicants are screened properly, so you should _
a. develop applicant screening software for internal hires
b. provide the agency with an accurate job description
c. send HR experts to monitor the agency's recruiting activities
d. post jobs on the firm's intranet and bulletin boards

42. are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their cI ients.
a. Executive recruiters
b. Temporary agencies
c. Private employment agencies
d. State-run employment agencies

43. Which of the following is NOT information that should be requested on application forms?
a. experience
b. training
c. technical skills
d. marital status

44. Which website is increasingly serving as a recruitment source for passive job candidates?
a. Career Builder
b. Linkedln
c. YouTube
d. Monster

45. A reliable employment test will most likely yield _
a. high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions
b. improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day
c. consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
d. similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times

46. If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is _
a. reliable
b. valid
c. invalid
d. unreliable

47. If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is _
a. reliable
b. unreliable
c. invalid
d. valid

48. Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people?
a. performance standard
b. competency model
c. digital dashboard
d. expectancy chart

49. According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their
a. psychological issues
b. lack of aptitude
c. physical limitations
d. nonperformance

50. All of the following are examples of self-reported personality tests EXCEPT _
a. Guilford-Zimmerman Survey
b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
c. Make a Picture Story
d. Myers Briggs Test

51. Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational  interview?
a. "Can you think of a time when you were especially proud of your management skills? Tell me about that."
b. "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Describe how you handled the situation."
c. "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?"
d. "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation."

52. Which of the following terms refers to individuals asked by the EEOC to apply for employment which they do not intend to accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices?
a. spies
b. insiders
c. moles
d. testers

53. Which of the following best describes telegraphing during an interview?
a. searching for hidden meanings in an applicant's answers
b. allowing an applicant to dominate an interview
c. smiling at an applicant to suggest a desired answer
d. drawing out the most useful information from an applicant

54. Which of the following is a true statement regarding structured situational interviews?
a. Answers are compared to industry standards.
b. Interviews are usually conducted by a panel.
c. Job descriptions are written after the interview.
d. Hypothetical questions are typically avoided.

55. Which question below is an example of a behavioral question?
a. "What are your long-term goals and aspirations as a social worker?"
b. "What is your attitude about working with a sales team instead of independently?"
c. "What factors do you consider before underwriting an insurance policy for a new client?"
d. "Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?"

56. Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering making changes to the way she interviews job candidates.
Which of the following best supports the argument that Marion should use structured interviews?
a. Marion's best agent has recently retired.
b. Marion lacks highly effective interviewing skills.
c. Marion likes applicants to evaluate themselves and to describe their goals.
d. Marion is viewed as a fair employer by most of her subordinates.

57. All of the following are useful methods for ensuring success after on-the-job training has occurred EXCEPT _
a. providing turnkey training packages for learners
b. gradually decreasing supervision
c. complimenting the learner's good work
d. designating to whom the learner should go for help

58. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of programmed learning?
a. Trainees benefit from a skilled coach.
b. Trainees can work at their own pace.
c. Training time is significantly reduced.
d. Trainees receive immediate feedback.

59. training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are trained away from the job.
a. Programmed
b. Virtual-reality
c. Vestibule
d. Job instruction

60. Travel agents at Apollo Travel Services follow a computer program that displays question prompts and dialogue boxes with travel policies as the agent enters information about the consumer's travel plans. This is an example of a(n) _
a. computer-based training module
b. intelligent tutoring system
c. audiovisual-based training method
d. electronic performance support system

61. Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement.Wells Fargo executives are considering the expansion of the firm's existing training programs after employees have expressed strong interest in the idea. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should integrate computer simulations into its training program for bank tellers?
a. The Wells Fargo intranet-based learning portal provides employees with access to a variety of training courses.
b. Wells Fargo is one of the few financial institutions to require all employees to participate in at least 30 hours of training each year.
c. Employee surveys indicate that many Wells Fargo bank tellers are uncertain about the best methods for handling angry customers.
d. Wells Fargo bank tellers use electronic performance support systems to assist them with handling complicated bank transactions.

62. All of the following are characteristics of most interactive training programs, such as simulations, EXCEPT _
a. increased learning time
b. responsive feedback
c. increased retention rate
d. instructional consistency

63. Jason is a conscientious employee, but he is viewed by most of his co-workers as unfriendly. Jason's supervisor rates him low on the traits "gets along well with others" and "quality of work." Which of the following problems has most likely affected Jason's performance
appraisal?
a. leniency
b. halo effect
c. central tendency
d. recency effect

64. A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem known as _
a. stereotyping
b. leniency
c. central tendency
d. halo effect

65. The problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.
a. strictness
b. central tendency
c. leniency
d. halo effect

66. The best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals isto _
a. impose a performance distribution
b. require multiple appraisals
c. reconsider the timing of the appraisal
d. keep critical incident logs

67. Which of the following is the primary advantage of using graphic rating scales as performance appraisal tools?
a. links with mutually agreed upon performance objectives
b. offers extremely high rate of accuracy
c. provides quantitative rating for each employee
d. eliminates central tendency errors

68. Apex Carpet has a very high voluntary turnover rate, which executives at the firm want reduced. Which of the following should Apex most likely do first in its attempt to retain top-performing employees?
a. administer attitude surveys to all employees
b. evaluate the firm's promotion methods
c. develop online training courses
d. provide an across-the-board wage increase

69. Which of the following best describes career planning?
a. a process of helping employees to better understand and develop their career skills and interests and to use these skills and interests most effectively.
b. a deliberate process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, and motivations and establishes action plans to attain specific career goals.
c. the lifelong series of activities that contribute to a person's career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment
d. the process of educating, instructing, and training subordinates as they develop their career interests and job skills.

70. Frank is a manager at a firm that does not have a career development program, but he wants to support the career development needs of his subordinates. All of the following are ways that Frank can support the career needs of his employees EXCEPT
a. offering employees training opportunities
b. using high-performance work system methods
c. discussing career goals during regular performance appraisals
d. providing employee orientation to new hires

71. Which of the following terms refers to advancements to positions of increased responsibility?
a. recruitments
b. promotions
c. appraisals
d. transfers

72. According to the court system, promotions based on subjective assessments
a. must be supported by objective evidence
b. are valid under the Civil Rights Act of 1991
c. support employers in adverse impact claims
d. violate the Americans with Disabilities Act

73. Jill works as a cashier at a grocery store. She earns $10 an hour (or $400 for a 40-hour week). Last week, she worked 46 hours. What is the minimum amount that Jill earned last week?
a. $460
b. $490
c. $520
d. $550

74. Which of the following terms refers to the ownership employees build up in their pension plans should their employment with a firm end prior to retirement?
a. vesting
b. shares
c. equity
d. portability

75. Homelife, a national chain of high-end furniture stores, employs nearly 800 workers. In the past few years, the company's market share has dropped significantly, and employee turnover has increased. Upper management is considering the implementation of a new compensation policy in its efforts to turn the company around. Historically, the company has paid all employees similarly with some
variation for seniority but no distinction between high and low performers. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Homelife should distribute salary surveys before establishing new pay rates?
a. Homelife executives plan to use the compensable factors emphasized by the Equal Pay Act.
b. Computerized job evaluation systems will be used by Homelife to generate questionnaires.
c. Homelife executives want to identify benchmark jobs before determining the worth of other jobs.
d. A wage curve needs to be established by Homelife for the purpose of federal compliance.

76. Which of the following best describes the point method of job evaluation?
a. identifying and quantifying the compensable factors present in a job
b. ranking each job relative to all other jobs based on pay grade
c. categorizing jobs into grades and classes based on specific rules
d. deciding which jobs have a higher number of compensable factors

77. A is comprised of jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation.
a. wage curve
b. benchmark
c. class
d. pay grade

78. Who proposed a two-factor theory that explai ns how motivator factors relate to satisfaction and hygiene factors relate to dissatisfaction?
a. Abraham Maslow
b. David McClelland
c. Frederick Taylor
d. Frederick Herzberg

79. Which of the following found that extrinsic rewards could detract from an employee's intrinsic motivation?
a. David McClelland
b. Frederick Herzberg
c. Edward Deci
d. Frederick Taylor

80. In Vroom's theory of motivation, motivation is equal to E * I * V, where E represents
a. existence
b. esteem
c. energy
d. expectancy

81. Which of the following terms refers to any salary increase the firm awards to an individual employee based on his or her individual performance?
a. merit pay
b. variable pay
c. competency-based pay
d. base pay

82. Tyler Oil offers a profit-sharing plan to its employees. Each year, Tyler Oil distributes total annual profits less taxes among employees based on employee merit ratings. Which of the following is most likely used by Tyler Oil?
a. Lincoln incentive system
b. deferred profit-sharing plan
c. employee stock ownership plan
d. cash plan

83. Which of the following sets minimum mental health care benefits?
a. Civil Rights Act
b. Americans with Disabilities Act
c. Mental Health Parity Act
d. Employee Mental Health Act

84. Which of the following requires that most private employers continue to make health benefits available to terminated or retired employees and their families for a period of time?
a. COBRA
b.ADA
c. OSHA
d. FMLA

85. Jenny must contribute at least 5 of her annual salary to her pension plan, and her employer contributes a set amount as well. She is given choices regarding how the money is invested. When she retires, the amount she has available will depend on how much she invested herself, and the rate of return on the investments she chose. This pension plan is most likely classified as _
a. contributory, non-qualified
b. contributory, defined contribution
c. non-contributory, defined benefit
d. qualified, defined benefit

86. Which term refers to individualized plans allowed by employers to accommodate employee preferences for benefits?
a. cafeteria benefits plan
b. matching plan
c. executive perquisite plan
d. variable pay plan

87. Stephanie has opted to work from 7 am to 3 pm so that she can be home when her son finishes school in the afternoons. Her company must offer for Stephanie to have this option.
a. flextime
b. telecommuting
c. compressed workweeks
d. shift work

88. When a company rewards employees who behave ethically using the firm's incentive plan and appraisal system, they are to encourage ethical behavior.
a. providing physical support
b. organizing ceremonies
c. using symbols
d. clarifyi ng expectations

89. Which of the following supervisory actions is LEAST likely to enhance the perception of fairness?
a. making more normative than non normative statements
b. dealing with unethical behavior quickly
c. ensuring that employees understand the reasons for a decision
d. conducting an objective performance appraisal

90. In which organizational document are an organization's rules and regulations usually stated?
a. human resource policy manual
b. federal code of ethics
c. employee handbook
d. mission and vision statement

91. Which of the following is NOT one of the four points of the hot stove rule?
a. feedback
b. immediate
c. consistent
d. warning

92. All of the following are typical results of fair disciplinary procedures EXCEPT
a. improved arbitration scheduling
b. increased organizational support
c. improved employee commitment
d. enhanced organizational satisfaction

93. Which of the following bans five unfair labor practices and provides for majority rule and secret ballot elections?
a. Landrum-Griffin Act
b. Wagner Act
c. Taft-Hartley Act
d. Norris-LaGuardia Act

94. Which of the following terms refers to an unfair labor practice in which a union requires an employer to pay an employee for services not performed?
a. padding
b. featherbedding
c. coercing
d. ballooning

95. Which of the following terms refers to a collective bargaining situation that occurs when the parties are not able to move further toward settlement?
a. wildcat strike
b. impasse
c. picketing
d. arbitration

96. Fact finding seeks to end an impasse by _
a. communicating assessments of the likelihood of a strike
b. interpreting and analyzing existing contract terms
c. assisting the principals in reaching an agreement
d. studying the issues and making a public recommendation

97. What term is used to describe any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment?
a. chronic condition
b. occupational illness
c. on-the-job accident
d. work-related disease

98. Centerline Communications wants to reduce the number of workplace accidents associated with employee substance abuse. Which of the following would be the most effective method to accomplish this goal?
a. a combination of preemployment drug testing and random ongoing drug testing
b. a combination of random ongoing drug testing with psychological evaluations
c. preemployment drug testing
d. preemployment psychological screening

99. Employees who wish to lower their job stress will most likely benefit from doing all of the following activities EXCEPT _
a. limiting interruptions
b. making a list of problems and possible solutions
c. putting off dealing with distasteful problems
d. requesting realistic project deadlines

100. The HR manager at Thompson Industries has been given the task of reducing the number of unsafe acts and creating a supportive environment. Which of the following would be LEAST effective?
a. promoting the value of safety
b. stressing the importance of teamwork
c. providing leadership training to managers
d. conducting an organizational safety review