Why is wage labor completely incompatible with feudalism

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Why is wage labor completely incompatible with feudalism?
Is economic life distinctly separate from social and political life?
Describe what Smith meant by the "invisible hand". What is the mechanism by which selfish interests are made compatible with--indeed, made the agent for-- successful social provisioning?
Can you see a relation between Smith's growth model and his market model? Would the growth model work if the forces of the market did not operate?

Reference no: EM13835561

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