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Question: A critic commented:
Most of the argument of Guns, Germs, and Steel is devoted to proving the primacy throughout history of mid-latitude Eurasia, and within this region of Europe (supposed heir to the Fertile Crescent) and China. If the argument stopped there, we would have a sort of Eurasia-centrism, not Eurocentrism. But Diamond's purpose is to explain "the broadest patterns of history," and so he must answer this final question: Why did Europe, not Eurasia as a whole, or Europe and China in tandem, rise to become the dominant force in the world?
Comment on the implications of this question. Does Diamond answer this question satisfactorily?
Link to article: 'Guns, Germs and Steel': Jared Diamond on Geography as Power (BY STEFAN LOVGREN)
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