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When a Michigan man was arrested for soliciting a prostitute, the car he was driving was confiscated by the police in accordance with a local ordinance. His wife, who was co-owner of the vehicle, look the matter to court, claiming that the government’s action was improper because it punished not only her husband but also her, even though she had no part in, or knowledge of, the crime he committed. Was her argument morally sound? Explain?