Reference no: EM131044960

Part 1

Question 1. Because the shared electrons between hydrogen and oxygen spend more time orbiting the oxygen than the hydrogen, water is

A. a nonpolar molecule.

B. a polar molecule.

C. a neutral molecule.

D. a charged molecule.

Question 2. The internal pH of most cells is near neutral. This allows

A. the buffers produced within the body to affect these cells.

B. enzymes within the cell to act at peak efficiency.

C. enzymes outside of these cells to function.

D. water to break down into H+ and OH-.

E. rapid fluctuations between acidic and basic conditions within the cells.

Question 3. During the Calvin-Benson cycle (carbon-fixing reactions), in the red Columbine plant, high-energy electrons are transferred into a newly made 3-carbon compound. Eventually, these electrons will end up as part of glucose molecules. What was the original source of these electrons in photosynthesis?

A. oxygen

B. glucose

C. ATP

D. carbon dioxide.

E. water
 
Question 4. In a cell,

A. energy-releasing reactions are coupled to energy-absorbing reactions.

B. energy-absorbing reactions and energy-releasing reactions are unlinked.

C. there are many more energy-absorbing reactions than energy-releasing reactions.

D. energy-absorbing reactions are coupled to energy-releasing reactions via electron carriers.

E. more energy is used up than is produced.

Question 5. Because of the atomic structure of carbon, it tends to form

A. hydrogen bonds.

B. covalent bonds.

C. bonds only with hydrogen.

D. sulfide bonds.

E. ionic bonds.

Question 6. The most common energy-carrying molecule in the cell is

A. adenine.

B. ATP.

C. AMP.

D. DNA.

E. ADP.

Question 7. A stone is pushed from the top of a hill. Halfway to the bottom of the hill, this rolling stone

A. is constantly gaining more energy.

B. has potential energy only.

C. has kinetic energy only.

D. has both potential energy and kinetic energy.

E. is using up chemical energy.

Question 8. A hummingbird is "drinking" nectar containing sugar from a red columbine flower. Arrange the following events to occur in the hummingbird in order from the first to last:
Glucose sugar is converted to pyruvate.
Energy from high-energy electrons is released from an electron transport chain. This energy is used to make ATP.
The hummingbird exhales carbon dioxide and energy is stored in electron carriers.
The hummingbird has the ability to beat its wings 40 - 80 times a second.

A. 1, 4, 3, 2

B. 1, 2, 3, 4

C. 2, 3, 4, 1

D. 1, 3, 2, 4

E. 2, 1, 3, 4

Question 9. Surface tension of water is due to

A. water molecules repelling each other.

B. ionization of water.

C. hydrogen bonding.

D. the ability of water to act as a solvent.

E. ionic bonding.

Question 10. All enzymes act by

A. breaking and forming ionic bonds between ions.

B. allowing products to be changed during the chemical reactions.

C. breaking hydrogen bonds between molecules.

D. lowering the activation energy of specific chemical reactions.

E. raising the activation energy of specific chemical reactions.

Question 11. With few exceptions, organic compounds are those that contain

A. all of the above.

B. hydrogen.

C. nitrogen.

D. carbon.

E. oxygen.

Question 12. Most cells are small. When they reach a certain size, cells typically divide. This has to do with the

A. inability to produce more components of the cell membrane.

B. fact that they cannot possess sufficient numbers of organelles for normal cell functioning.

C. surface-to-volume ratio.

D. differences between viral particles and eukaryotic cells.

E. amount of genetic material.

Question 13. As one form of energy is converted into another, there is always some energy lost as

A. light.

B. chemical energy.

C. activation energy.

D. heat.

E. kinetic energy.

Question 14. In photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions

A. produce ADP and carbon dioxide.

B. can take place day or night.

C. are uncoupled from the light-independent reactions.

D. produce ATP and energy stored in electron carriers.

E. lead to carbon fixation.

Question 15. Rank the following chemical bonds from weakest to strongest:

A. ionic, covalent, hydrogen

B. hydrogen, ionic, covalent

C. hydrogen, covalent, ionic

D. ionic, hydrogen, covalent

E. covalent, ionic, hydrogen

Question 16. What method is often used by cells to move large solid material into the cell?

A. facilitated diffusion.

B. phagocytosis.

C. active transport.

D. simple diffusion.

E. exocytosis.

Question 17. This element is prominent in both living organisms and in the Earth's surface.

A. silicon

B. carbon

C. aluminum

D. hydrogen

E. oxygen

Question 18. The majority of ATP produced in cellular respiration is produced during

A. fermentation.

B. the Krebs cycle.

C. glycolysis.

D. anaerobic processes.

E. the electron transport chain.

Question 19. The role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to

A. aid in the transport of pyruvate into the mitochondria.

B. supply an energy molecule.

C. act as the final electron acceptor.

D. combine with carbon atoms to form carbon dioxide.

E. allow glycolysis to continue.

Question 20. The atomic nucleus consists of

A. neutrons and electrons.

B. protons and electrons

C. neutrons only.

D. neutrons and protons.

E. protons only.

Part 2

Question 1. Which of the following statements is true:

A. The dominant allele is masked in homozygous dominant individuals.

B. With dominant genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an affected individual must also be affected.

C. With recessive genetic disorders, if both parents are carriers, the offspring will all be affected.

D. In recessive genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an affected individual must also be affected.

E. In carriers, the recessive allele causes an intermediate phenotype.

Question 2. Sickle cell anemia is an example of what type of inheritance?

A. codominance

B. incomplete dominance

C. complete dominance

D. recessive dominance

E. multiple alleles

Question 3. Tall corn plants (T) are dominant to dwarf plants (tt). Solid green leaves (G) are dominant to leaves with a white tip (gg). A cross between two corn plants yielded the following phenotypes: 51 tall plants with a white tip on their leaves; 43 dwarf plants with solid leaves; 48 dwarf plants with white tips on their leaves; 45 tall plants with solid leaves. What are the genotypes of the parents that produced these plants?

A. ttGG x TTgg

B. None of the above

C. TtGg x TtGg

D. TtGg x Ttgg

E. TtGg x ttgg

Question 4. Consider two traits for an organism, determined by two genes, each of which is governed by at least two alleles. In the case of a dihybrid individual, the gametes formed will be of either the parental type or the recombinant type. Recombinant type gametes are formed because of

A. incomplete dominance.

B. the principle of dihybrids.

C. heterozygosity.

D. independent assortment.

E. multiple alleles.

Question 5. If an organism's diploid chromosome number is 18, how many different possible combinations of homologous chromosomes lining up during meiosis exist for the eggs or sperm produced by that organism?

A. 36

B. 128

C. 9

D. 512

E. 18

Question 6. Skin cancers typically develop in the

A. subcutaneous layer.

B. lower layers of the epidermis.

C. upper layers of the dermis.

D. upper layers of the epidermis.

E. lower layers of the dermis.
 
Question 7. The segregation principle states that in sexually reproducing diploid organisms the two copies of each gene

A. must always be the same allele.

B. separate from each other during mitosis.

C. move together as a unit during meiosis.

D. will both wind up in either the sperm or egg.

E. segregate from each other during meiosis.

Question 8. After the DNA is replicated, and it condenses in prophase, two identical rods of DNA are seen. These are

A. kinetochores.

B. spindle fibers.

C. chromatids.

D. chromatin.

E. centromeres.

Question 9. If you view a cell in which the genetic material is beginning to be visible as separate bodies, and the nucleus has disappeared from view, you may surmise that the cells is in

A. metaphase.

B. telophase.

C. prophase.

D. interphase.

E. anaphase.
 
Question 10. In what phases is the genetic material in the cell correctly referred to as chromatids?

A. anaphase and metaphase

B. interphase and prophase

C. interphase and telophase

D. metaphase and prophase

E. metaphase and telophase
 
Question 11. What structure holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers?

A. cyclin

B. chromatin

C. kinetochore

D. MPF

E. centromere

Question 12. The genetic makeup of a particular trait in an individual is its

A. phenotype.

B. genotype.

C. filial.

D. heterozygosity.

E. dominance.

Question 13. Special cells found in the gonads that give rise to gametes upon division are called

A. egg cells.

B. germ cells.

C. somatic cells.

D. stem cells.

E. basal cells.

Question 14. An allele is

A. always recessive.

B. the dominant form of a gene.

C. the main factor determining a trait.

D. always one of a pair.

E. an alternate form of a gene.
 
Question 15. Mendel observed that dominant traits

A. were the only traits seen in the F2 generation of pea plants in his experiments.

B. are only expressed in hybrids.

C. were absent in the F1 generation of pea plants that he used in his experiments.

D. are expressed in all plants.

E. are seen in all of the F1 hybrid pea plants in his experiments.

Question 16. Gregor Mendel was successful in his analysis of the genetics of pea plants because

A. pea plants have genetics different from other organisms.

B. he decided to only look at his results in an objective manner.

C. he examined and analyzed both the F1 and F2 generations.

D. he studied a trait that had a strange inheritance pattern.

E. he studied the parental plants to determine their differences.

Question 17. At the end of metaphase I, _______________ separate.

A. germ cells

B. sister chromatids

C. homologous chromosomes

D. centrioles

E. haploid chromatids

Question 18. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (MD) is inherited from an X-linked recessive allele. What is the probability that a son with Duchenne MD inherited this disease from his biological father?

A. 1/4

B. 1/2

C. 0

D. 1/8

E. 1/16
 
Question 19. Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from cytokinesis in animal cells because

A. the contractile protein, actin, is important only in plant cells.

B. in plant cells, the cell plate must also divide into two parts.

C. plant cells have a rigid cell wall.

D. a contractile ring forms only in plant cells.

E. there is no difference.
 
Question 20. In humans, a gene that has been identified as causing a type of skin cancer is the

A. mutant superman.

B. superwoman echidna.

C. mutant mole rat.

D. sonic hedgehog.

E. superhero aardvark.

Part 3

Question 1. DNA replication of a single DNA molecule is referred to as semiconservative because

A. all the DNA strands in the two DNA molecules will have both parental and newly synthesized DNA.

B. of the two DNA molecules, one is made up totally of parental DNA, while the other is entirely newly synthesized DNA.

C. it results in two nonidentical DNA molecules.

D. each of the two DNA molecules will consist of one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.

E. one DNA strand is replicated continuously, while the other must be replicated discontinuously.

Question 2. In DNA, cytosine bonds to guanine. In RNA, cytosine bonds to

A. adenine.

B. thymine.

C. cytosine.

D. uracil.

E. guanine.

Question 3. The most important experimental results that suggested to Watson and Crick that DNA was in the form of a helix was

A. the findings of Chargaff that DNA always had equal amounts of A and T and equal amounts of G and C.

B. the discovery that DNA is wound around histone proteins.

C. X-ray data from Rosalind Franklin.

D. understanding DNA replication.

E. Griffith's results with transformation.

Question 4. Normal human body cells contain how many chromosomes?

A. 23

B. 44

C. 42

D. 22

E. 46
 
Question 5. What step in DNA replication precedes the pairing of complementary bases?

A. polymerization of DNA.

B. joining of the two strands.

C. formation of the histone core.

D. mitotic division.

E. separation of the two strands.
 
Question 6. The two subunits of the ribosome join during

A. termination of transcription.

B. initiation of translation.

C. elongation.

D. promotion of transcription.

E. termination of translation.
 
Question 7. DNA replication

A. is constantly happening in a cell.

B. occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.

C. occurs in G1 of interphase.

D. takes place in the nucleus of the cell.

E. does not require proteins.
 
Question 8. The bases are bonded to what part of the backbone of the DNA molecule?

A. the 5' carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

B. the 4' carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

C. the 3' carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

D. the 1' carbon atom of the sugar molecule.

E. the 2' carbon atom of the sugar molecule.
 
Question 9. A component of bacteria that are often used in biotechnology are

A. operons.

B. exons.

C. introns.

D. plasmids.

E. polypeptides.

Question 10. In recombinant DNA technology, enzymes used to precisely cut DNA are called

A. DNA polymerases.

B. RNA polymerases.

C. DNA ligases.

D. vectors.

E. restriction enzymes.
 
Question 11. Hershey and Chase performed an experiment in which they used radioactive isotopes to phosphorus and sulfur to label different components of bacterial viruses. Their results clearly showed that

A. protein was entering into the infected bacteria.

B. genetic material normally contains radioactive isotopes.

C. the viruses did not contain DNA.

D. DNA was entering into the infected bacteria.

E. the viruses did not contain protein.
 
Question 12. In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the

A. mitochondria.

B. cytoplasm.

C. nucleus.

D. ribosome.

E. cell membrane.

Question 13. We refer to the DNA code as being redundant or repetitive. This means that

A. some codons code for the same amino acid.

B. a single triplet may code for more than one amino acid.

C. each triplet codes for one amino acid.

D. each triplet codes for a different amino acid.

E. one codon codes for one amino acid.

Question 14. Base pairing

A. takes place between sugars and phosphates on the two strands in a helix.

B. explains the X-ray results from Rosalind Franklin.

C. occurs between A and C.

D. occurs between identical bases.

E. requires hydrogen bonds.

Question 15. The anticodon of the tRNA molecule base pairs with

A. DNA.

B. rRNA.

C. amino acids.

D. mRNA.

E. polypeptides.
 
Question 16. The fact that the two strands composing a DNA molecule are called antiparallel has to do with the orientation of the

A. sugar molecules.

B. sulfide bonds.

C. phosphate molecules.

D. hydrogen bonds.

E. bases.

Question 17. When looking at a table depicting the genetic code, the base sequences signify

A. mRNA.

B. mtDNA.

C. rRNA.

D. DNA.

E. tRNA.

Question 18. A package of histones with DNA wrapped around them forms spherical structures called

A. chromatin.

B. ribosomes.

C. lysosomes.

D. nucleoli.

E. nucleosomes.
 
Question 19. What enzyme is used to "glue" together the ends of cut pieces of DNA?

A. DNA ligase

B. restriction enzymes

C. protease

D. RNA polymerase

E. DNA polymerase
 
Question 20. What form of RNA carries instructions from the nucleus to the ribosome?

A. bRNA

B. rRNA

C. sRNA

D. mRNA

E. tRNA

Part 4

Question 1. Random changes in gene frequency that occur in small populations describes the concept of

A. convergent evolution.

B. sympatric speciation.

C. parapatric speciation.

D. adaptive radiation.

E. genetic drift.

Question 2. Immature eggs are called

A. oocytes.

B. blastocysts.

C. basal cells.

D. follicles.

E. ovaries.
 
Question 3. Embryonic development includes all of the following except

A. cleavage.

B. organogenesis.

C. fertilization.

D. gastrulation.

E. growth.

Question 4. Negative feedback loops act to

A. control sperm production.

B. cause an erection of the penis when stimulated.

C. cause expulsion of milk during breastfeeding.

D. cause uterine contractions during childbirth.

E. cause milk production after childbirth.
 
Question 5. The primary male hormone is

A. estrogen.

B. produced throughout a male's entire lifetime.

C. only involved in sperm production.

D. produced in the brain.

E. testosterone.

Question 6. Which of the following is the best description of an adaptation?

A. an environmental change that selects for certain traits

B. a trait that is of no advantage to survival

C. a trait that was beneficial to survival in the past

D. a trait that will be beneficial in the future

E. a trait that is currently beneficial to survival
 
Question 7. Most mutations lead to a decreased chance of survival for the mutant organism. Rarely, a mutation can provide an increased chance of survival. These rare mutations provide a(n) _____________________ for the mutant.

A. environmental susceptibility

B. directional shift

C. adaptive

D. selective advantage

E. selective disadvantage
 
Question 8. On a molecular level, all organisms

A. have the same bases in DNA and RNA, the same amino acids in proteins, and use the same genetic code.

B. use different means of storing genetic information.

C. have the same bases in DNA and RNA, but different amino acids in proteins.

D. show no similarities.

E. have the same bases in DNA and RNA, the same amino acids in proteins, but use different genetic codes.
 
Question 9. A population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

A. consists of allele frequencies that are constantly changing.

B. is very common in nature.

C. consists of genotype frequencies that are constantly changing.

D. is under no selective pressures.

E. requires a small population size.
 
Question 10. Animals that possess both male and female sexual organs

A. are dioecious and typically self-fertilize.

B. are hermaphroditic and typically self-fertilize.

C. are hermaphroditic and typically cross-fertilize.

D. are parthenogenetic and typically self-fertilize.

E. are dioecious and typically cross-fertilize.

Question 11. Vestigial organs

A. must have evolved individually in different organisms.

B. include the human appendix and wisdom teeth and a snake's hipbones.

C. did not have a function when they first developed, but do so today.

D. are similar in many organisms.

E. are not found in present-day organisms.

Question 12. After being produced in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the

A. vas deferens.

B. epididymis.

C. ejaculatory duct.

D. seminal vesicle.

E. urethra.
 
Question 13. Which of the following is not true of the punctuated equilibrium theory?

A. It proposes that most evolutionary change is concentrated in relatively brief episodes of change.

B. It suggests that subgroups diverge and evolve at about equal and constant rates.

C. It suggests that most species undergo little phenotypic change during most of their evolutionary duration.

D. It was inspired in part by patterns observed in the fossil record.

E. It appears to be well supported by the fossil record.
 
Question 14. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

A. acts as a hormone signaling menstruation.

B. is produced by the amnion.

C. can be used to reveal pregnancy.

D. is needed to form the placenta.

E. is stored in the ovaries.
 
Question 15. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are

A. only produced in female humans.

B. produced in both male and female humans.

C. produced in the testes.

D. produced in the ovaries.

E. constantly secreted into the bloodstream of males.

Question 16. Chemical compounds secreted by mammals and insects to communicate sexual readiness are called

A. hormones.

B. estrogens.

C. testosterones.

D. pheromones.

E. developers.
 
Question 17. Which of the following statements about natural selection is true?

A. Natural selection causes variations to arise within a population.

B. Natural selection leads to increased likelihood of survival for certain individuals based on variation. The variation must come from outside the population.

C. All individuals within a population have an equal likelihood of survival. Survival is based on chance.

D. Natural selection results in those individuals within a population who are best-adapted surviving and producing more offspring.

E. Natural selection leads to extinction.

Question 18. As opposed to external fertilization, internal fertilization ensures that

A. sperm and egg will be released simultaneously.

B. the number of sperm and eggs produced will be equal.

C. sperm will be protected until they can unite with the eggs.

D. only the fittest of sperm and egg combinations will survive.

E. all of the sperm will fertilize eggs.
 
Question 19. This type of selection favors both extremes of the phenotype spectrum within a population.

A. stabilizing

B. directional

C. disruptive

D. natural

E. neutral
 
Question 20. Up until the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries, many naturalists believed that all species of living organism(s) had been created separately and had remained unchanged since the creation. Around that time, scientific research provided findings that were contradictory to that idea. All of the following are findings that contradict the idea of a single creation. Choose the exception.

A. As scientists explored more of the earth, they found that different groups of organisms were found in the different regions.

B. Some fossils of extinct organisms are quite different from living organisms.

C. The limbs of some mammals serve the same purpose but their bone patterns are very different.

D. Even though the limbs of various mammals carry out different functions (swimming, gliding, running, holding, etc.), the bone patterns are very similar.

E. The platypus is only found in Australia and the dodo was only found on Madagascar.

Part 5

Question 1. Oxygen built up in the atmosphere approximately 2 billion years ago and

A. helped to form the ozone layer that is so important to life today.

B. could not have occurred without the oxygen coming from outer space.

C. occurred due to carbon dioxide being split by lightning strikes.

D. destroyed ozone forming more oxygen.

E. occurred because aerobic organisms required the oxygen.

Question 2. Prions are composed of

A. DNA.

B. protein.

C. DNA and protein.

D. DNA, RNA, and protein.

E. RNA.

Question 3. The endosymbiont hypothesis suggests that the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells are descended from captured

A. chemoautotrophic bacteria.

B. cyanobacteria.

C. archaebacteria.

D. aerobic bacteria.

E. eukaryotic algae.
 
Question 4. When taxonomists classify organisms using a phylogenetic approach, they are most concerned with

A. ingroups.

B. cladists.

C. outgroups.

D. ancestral traits.

E. derived traits.
 
Question 5. Atmospheric chemists think that Earth's first atmosphere

A. was very similar to today's atmosphere.

B. consisted of carbon in the form of carbon monoxide.

C. contained no oxygen atoms.

D. consisted of carbon in the form of carbon dioxide.

E. contained nitrogen in the form of ammonia and nitrogen gas.

Question 6. What term is used to indicate a characteristic that is shared and inherited from a common ancestor?

A. analogous trait

B. outgroups

C. cladistic trait

D. homologous trait

E. derived trait

Question 7. Most bacteria are

A. symbionts.

B. chemoautotrophs.

C. heterotrophs.

D. photoautotrophs.

E. microbial predators.

Question 8. During which geological era did Pangea break apart?

A. Cenozoic

B. Paleozoic

C. Proterozoic

D. Archean

E. Mesozoic
 
Question 9. What is the main difference between protists and bacteria?

A. Bacteria have DNA, protists do not.

B. Bacteria are always gram-negative, protists are gram-positive

C. Protists are unicellular, bacteria are multicellular.

D. Protists cannot cause infections, bacteria can

E. Protists have a nucleus, bacteria do not

Question 10. All but one of the following are false regarding protists. Identify the true statement.

A. Most protists are single-celled organisms; some are multicellular.

B. All protists are single-celled organisms.

C. Protists have cell walls composed mainly of peptidoglycans.

D. Protists are prokaryotic.

E. Protists do not have the ability to move on their own.
 
Question 11. The Cambrian Explosion provided a wealth of fossil remains for scientists to uncover. Many of the animals from this time period had tough skins or shells. This would

A. make these animals more desirable to predators.

B. protect the animal from osmotic pressure.

C. allow the animals to move into different environments easily.

D. be a disadvantage for these organisms and lead to their death and fossil formation.

E. protect the animal from predators.
 
Question 12. Endospores form

A. to produce two offspring from every one parental cell.

B. in response to adverse conditions.

C. as a means of genetic recombination.

D. when the environmental conditions are favorable.

E. during binary fission.

Question 13. Eukaryotic cells are thought to have

A. appeared about 2.1 billion years ago.

B. first appeared with tough cell walls.

C. developed when mitochondria grew much larger in size that they had been previously.

D. evolved before prokaryotic cells.

E. first appeared as parts of multicellular organisms.

Question 14. Some bacteria can form resting structures called ___________ that can withstand extremes in temperature, moisture, and radiation.

A. prions

B. viroids

C. endospores

D. capsids

E. symbionts
 
Question 15. Kelps are a form of what group of protists?

A. brown algae

B. water molds

C. slime molds

D. dinoflagellates

E. ciliates
 
Question 16. Paleontologists have found fossils dating back 3.6 billion years. These closely resemble

A. nothing alive today.

B. blue-green algae present today.

C. today's simplest plants.

D. fungi.

E. small invertebrate animals.
 
Question 17. Of the following, which kingdom contains the most diversity in terms of DNA sequences?

A. Protista

B. Plantae

C. All of these are approximately equivalently diverse.

D. Animalia

E. Fungi

Question 18. In bacteria, the cell wall is composed mainly of

A. various polysaccharides.

B. peptidoglycans.

C. glycoproteins.

D. proteins.

E. lipids.

Question 19. Which form of bacterial cells is rod shaped?

A. spirilla

B. bacilli

C. rhodius

D. vibrios

E. cocci
 
Question 20. Rickettsias belong to which major group of bacteria?

A. cyanobacteria

B. Archaea

C. spirochetes

D. proteobacteria

E. viruses