Reference no: EM131296556

Part 1:

1. The term participatory democracy applies most accurately to which of the following societies?
a. Greece in the fourth century B.C.
b. Modern China
c. The United States since 1787
d. The Soviet Union between 1917 and 1990
e. The southeastern United States before the Civil War

2. In 1787, as the Constitution was being debated,
he helped create might be too democratic, while
Constitution, worried that it was not democratic enough.
a. John Adams; James Madison
b. George Washington; George Mason
c. Alexander Hamilton; George Mason
d. Thomas Jefferson; Alexander Hamilton
e. Patrick Henry; Samuel Adams worried that the new government who refused to sign the

3. In our political system, Aristotle's ideal of direct democracy has been most closely approximated by the
a. AFL-CIO
b. U.S. House of Representatives
c. New England town meeting
d. Constitutional Convention
e. southeastern United States before the Civil War

4. How did Aristotle define democracy?
a. Rule of the few
b. Rule of the one
c. Rule of the powerful
d. Rule of the many
e. Rule of the elite

5. For representative democracy to work, all of the following must take place EXCEPT
a. opportunities for genuine leadership competition
b. individuals and parties must be free to run for office
c. genuine freedom of speech and press
d. voters must perceive that a meaningful choice exists
e. most of the money for campaigning must come from the government

6. Who said the following: "The democratic method is that institutional arrangement for arriving at political decisions in which individuals [that is, leaders] acquire the power to decide by means of a competitive struggle for the people's vote"?
a. Joseph Stalin
b. Joseph Schumpeter
c. Max Weber
d. Karl Marx
e. Soren Kierkegaard

7. Representative democracy is sometimes disapprovingly referred to as the theory of democracy.
a. limited
b. aristocratic
c. economic
d. authoritarian
e. elitist

8. Direct democracy is impractical because
a. one must be elected to be involved in politics full time
b. elected officials do not have enough information or policy expertise
c. the opinion of a single person is not relevant to democracy
d. people often make decisions based on fleeting passions
e. public policy is not a democratic institution

9. Under the Articles of Confederation, amendments had to
a. be written in secret
b. be submitted to the national judiciary for approval
c. have the approval of half of the state governors
d. be agreed upon by all thirteen states
e. be supported by a majority of the delegates

10. The list of the essential rights demanded by the colonists included life, liberty, and
a. trading rights
b. property rights
c. the right to own slaves
d. the pursuit of truth
e. fraternity

11. Pennsylvania's government was considered "radically democratic" because it featured no
a. constitution
b. written laws
c. elected officials
d. legislature
e. governor

12. What occurred in January 1787 when a group of ex-Revolutionary War soldiers, fearful of losing their property to creditors and tax collectors, forcibly prevented the courts in western Massachusetts from operating?
a. Shays's Rebellion
b. Bacon's Rebellion
c. Whiskey Rebellion
d. Clarke's Rebellion
e. The Boston Tea Party Rebellion

13. The purpose of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 was to
a. prepare a new constitution
b. consider revisions to the Articles of Confederation
c. draft a declaration of independence
d. adopt a common state constitution
e. prepare for a second revolution

14. To put down Shays's Rebellion, the governor of Massachusetts
a. personally led Continental Army soldiers
b. relied on the state militia
c. hired a volunteer army with private funds
d. lobbied the Continental Congress to forgive the debts owed by the rebels
e. asked Great Britain to help

15. The effect of Shays's Rebellion on attendance by delegates at the planned Constitutional Convention of 1787 was to
a. encourage attendance by delegates fearing the collapse of state governments
b. encourage attendance by delegates fearing intervention by the British
c. discourage attendance by delegates fearing a public outcry against any strengthening of the Articles of Confederation
d. discourage attendance by delegates fearing intervention by the British
e. discourage attendance by delegates who fought in the Revolutionary War

16. In McCulloch v. Maryland (1819), the Supreme Court ruled that
a. states could form banks and tax them
b. the national government could charter banks and the states could not tax those banks
c. the national government's power was dependent on the states
d. Congress erred when it created a national banking system
e. states could not charter banks

17. A central premise in Marshall's analysis of federalism was that the government of the United States was established by
a. the convention
b. the states
c. the people
d. the Supreme Court
e. Congress

18. In McCulloch v. Maryland,
a. the Constitution's "necessary and proper" clause permits Congress to take actions when it is essential to a power that Congress has
b. the Constitution's commerce clause gives the national government exclusive power to regulate interstate commerce
c. Congress may not act to subject nonconsenting states to lawsuits in state courts
d. the states may not regulate interstate commerce
e. the national government's authority to require state officials to administer or enforce a federal regulation is limited

19. The doctrine of nullification refers to
a. the power of Congress to veto state laws that violate the U.S. Constitution
b. the claimed authority of the states to declare a federal law void for violating the U.S. Constitution
c. the power of the president to veto state laws for violating the U.S. Constitution
d. the authority of the president to dissolve Congress and to call for new elections
e. the power of the federal government to invalidate state laws on matters of commerce

20. When Congress passed laws (in 1798) to punish newspaper editors who published stories critical of the federal government, these two political leaders suggested in the Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions that the states had the right to nullify a federal law that, in the state's opinion, violated the Constitution.
a. James Madison and Thomas Jefferson
b. John Adams and Alexander Hamilton
c. John Dickinson and George Clinton
d. Samuel Adams and John Hancock
e. John Jay and John Marshall

21. During the battle over slavery, the case for nullification was forcefully presented by
a. William Jennings Randolph
b. Robert E. Lee
c. William Graham Sumner
d. John C. Calhoun
e. Jeb Stuart

22. The doctrine of dual federalism grew out of a protracted debate on the subject of
a. commerce
b. banking
c. manufacturing
d. welfare
e. licensing of commercial fishermen

23. Initially, it was supposed that
a. Congress could regulate interstate commerce
b. Congress could regulate interstate and intrastate commerce
c. the state governments could regulate interstate commerce
d. the state governments could regulate interstate and intrastate commerce
e. there was no distinction between interstate and intrastate commerce

24. The interstate commerce that the federal government can regulate is now interpreted to include
a. almost any kind of economic activity
b. only the movement of goods between states
c. almost any commerce in goods, but not labor transactions
d. commerce between states and a handful of transactions within states
e. shipping and handling, but not production

25. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the Supreme Court's modern rulings on regulation of interstate commerce?
a. The Court allows federal regulation of almost anything related to interstate commerce.
b. The Court permits only state regulation of most interstate commerce.
c. The Court has excluded every type of service provider from federal regulation.
d. The Court allows limited federal regulation of interstate commerce.
e. No regulation of interstate commerce is permitted by the state or federal governments.

Part 2:

1. The Bill of Rights has come to apply to the states through the interpretation of
a. the Fourteenth Amendment
b. the Tenth Amendment
c. the commerce clause
d. Article III
e. the necessary and proper clause

2. The earliest incorporations of portions of the Bill of Rights relied on
a. the notion of a reasonable person
b. the shock-the-conscience test
c. a rational basis standard
d. the due process and equal protection clauses
e. the notions of ordered liberty and fundamental rights

3. In this Supreme Court decision, the Court held that the federal guarantees of free speech and free press also applied to the states.
a. Marbury
b. Barron
c. Gitlow
d. McDonald
e. Heller

4. In Palko v. Connecticut (1937) the Supreme Court broadly ruled that certain provisions of the national Bill of Rights apply to the states because of
a. the notion of a reasonable person
b. the shock-the-conscience test
c. a rational basis standard
d. the due process and equal protection clauses
e. the notions of ordered liberty and fundamental rights

5. Which term best describes the manner in which the Supreme Court has applied the Bill of Rights to the states?
a. Incorporation
b. Selective incorporation
c. Complete incorporation
d. Consecutive incorporation
e. Minimal incorporation

6. What case determined that the federal government could not ban the private possession of firearms?
a. McDonald v. Chicago
b. Palko v. Connecticut
c. District of Columbia v. Heller
d. Gitlow v. New York
e. Near v. Minnesota

7. The First Amendment does not address
a. freedom of religion
b. the right to bear arms
c. freedom of the press
d. freedom of speech
e. freedom of assembly

8. The Supreme Court justice who compared some political speech to falsely shouting "Fire!" in a theater was .
a. Louis Brandeis
b. Felix Frankfurter
c. William Rehnquist
d. Warren Burger
e. Oliver Wendell Holmes

9. Writing for the Supreme Court, Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes proclaimed that Congress could punish dangerous speech when that speech.
a. represented a "clear and present danger" to the United States
b. incited citizens to commit a lawless action
c. was false
d. promoted communism
e. was slander

10. As its rationale for the decision in Brown, the Supreme Court relied primarily on
a. the intent of the framers of the Constitution
b. the intent of Congress regarding the Fourteenth Amendment
c. social science evidence
d. a narrow interpretation of the U.S. Constitution
e. the redress of grievances clause in the First Amendment

11. The difference between de facto and de jure segregation is that
a. the former results from private choices, the latter from public law
b. the former results from public law, the latter from private choices
c. the former existed in the past, the latter continues in the present
d. the former is illegal, the latter is legal
e. the former deals with perceptions, the latter deals with verified facts

12. The practice of court-ordered busing plans to remedy school segregation patterns was approved in the case of
a. Brown v. Board of Education
b. Sipuel v. County Trustee
c. Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenburg Board of Education
d. Green v. County School Board of New Kent County
e. Plessy v. Ferguson

13. Rosa Parks had a tremendous impact on the civil rights movement when she refused to
a. surrender her seat on a bus
b. be bussed to a white school
c. run for political office
d. ride a train
e. vote in a white primary

14. The philosophy of civil disobedience suggests that there is value to
a. protesting against laws that are not enforced by civil authorities
b. peacefully violating the law
c. violating all laws with respect to civility
d. protesting in a legal manner, and forming militant organizations
e. using violence when laws are not conducive to civil society

15. One factor helping to break the deadlock that developed in the civil rights movement during the early 1960s was the
a. media coverage of violence by white segregationists
b. Supreme Court's ruling in Brown v. Board of Education
c. decentralization of power in the House and Senate
d. civil unrest that shook several northern cities
e. election of Republican presidents

16. Dr. Martin Luther King's "I have a dream" speech was given in front of
a. the White House
b. the Washington Monument
c. the Capitol
d. the Lincoln Memorial
e. the Library of Congress

17. The textbook discusses how the growing political strength of blacks is evident because
a. more than 10,500 blacks hold elective office at all levels of government
b. Republican officials have replaced Democratic officials throughout the South
c. six senators and twelve House members are black
d. two blacks from the same state have been elected to the Senate and House
e. one-third of all southern blacks are now registered voters

18. In their struggle for equal treatment, women, unlike blacks, had to deal with a legal tradition that
a. claimed to be protecting them
b. regarded them as chattel
c. had always treated them as equal in theory
d. had consistently ignored them
e. had accorded them special rights and responsibilities

19. The origin of the movement to give more rights to women was probably the
a. Rights Manifesto
b. Seneca Falls Convention
c. Nineteenth Amendment
d. "Rosie the Riveter" worker
e. Equal Rights Amendment

20. When researchers compare how identical twins (who are genetically the same) think about politics with how fraternal twins (who share only half of their genes) think about politics, they found
a. that both groups held similar political opinions
b. fraternal twins held similar political opinions to one another, compared to identical twins
c. identical twins are much more likely to have similar political views than fraternal twins
d. the partisan view of the parents matter more than genes
e. there is no relationship between genetics and political views

21. According to the text, one reason that identification with a party has declined in recent years is that
a. young voters have weaker party identification
b. party identification today is no longer influenced by parents' party identification
c. today, there are more parties with which voters can identify
d. voters tend to lose their party identification as they grow older, and today's population is aging
e. party identification is increasingly seen as a sign of closed-mindedness

22. According to the text, people of all religions who attend worship services regularly are
a. less likely to vote Republican
b. more likely to vote for independent candidates
c. less likely to vote Democrat
d. more likely to vote for Green Party candidates
e. less likely to vote

23. The to the U.S. Constitution ensures that women have the right to vote.
a. Seventeenth Amendment
b. Eighteenth Amendment
c. Nineteenth Amendment
d. Twentieth Amendment
e. Twenty-First Amendment

24. The , a faction of the Republican Party, were opposed to the patronage system and favored nonpartisan elections at the city level.
a. stalwarts
b. Whigs
c. Old Guards
d. Jacksonians
e. progressives

25. Progressives called for electoral reforms, such as the initiative and the referendum, to give
a. Congress a way of controlling the president
b. citizens a direct say in making laws
c. courts a system for prosecuting election fraud
d. governors more power in relation to legislatures
e. party regulars a say in nominating candidates

Part 3:

1. What was the name of the ballot that was designed to decrease voter fraud?
a. Indiana ballot
b. Australian ballot
c. Party ballot
d. Massachusetts ballot
e. Universal ballot

2. What recent election resulted in a variety of proposals to change the voting system?
a. 2004
b. 2012
c. 2008
d. 1996
e. 2000

3. Who provides services such as web site design, online advertising and fundraising, and voter-targeting?
a. a media consultant
b. a direct-mail firm
c. a polling firm
d. a political technology firm
e. a campaign manager

4. By the time the 2012 presidential election was completed, the Obama campaign and the Romney campaign, together with a dozen other contenders for the presidency, had raised and spent approximately:
a. $600 million
b. $4 billion
c. $1.3 billion
d. $800 million
e. $500 million

5. Most of the money that individual candidates spend during the course of a campaign is directed toward .
a. media-related activities
b. campaign staff and advisors
c. travel-related expenses
d. campaign literature
e. the national convention

6. A comprehensive study on political advertisements found that the largest number emphasized
a. stirring positive emotions
b. voters' fears
c. civic duty
d. nonpartisan cooperation
e. candidates' personal qualities

7. Ads that appeal to a voter's emotions heavily influence
a. those who know little about government
b. Democrats
c. Republicans
d. moderates
e. those with the most information about government.

8. people vote in a presidential election compared to a congressional election.
a. The same number of
b. Slightly more
c. Slightly less
d. Many more
e. Many less

9. A major difference between presidential campaigns and congressional campaigns is that
a. fewer people vote in presidential elections
b. presidential incumbents can better serve their constituents
c. presidential incumbents can more easily avoid responsibility
d. presidential races are generally more competitive
e. congressional incumbents are more likely to be defeated

10. How many members are there in the U.S. House of Representatives?
a. 400
b. 435
c. 535
d. 100
e. 200

11. By the end of the nineteenth century, the Senate was known as the Club.
a. Recalcitrant
b. Winner's
c. Hunt
d. Millionaires'
e. Vice President's

12. The purpose of a filibuster is to
a. ensure that all sides of an issue are heard
b. delay action in a legislative body
c. protect majority rule
d. shift legislative power to Senate committees
e. magnify the impact of specific special interests

13. Today, it takes of the Senate to cut off debate.
a. 50 members
b. 60 members
c. 51 members
d. 75 members
e. 99 members

14. The typical member of Congress is a(n)
a. young, white, Protestant businessman
b. older, white, Protestant businessman
c. older, white, Catholic lawyer
d. middle-aged, white, Protestant lawyer
e. young, white communications major

15. The "Blue Dog" Caucus consists of Democrats who happen to be
a. extremely liberal
b. moderately conservative
c. from the Southeastern United States
d. from districts that feature coastal waterways
e. senior to most of the members in their region

16. In the nineteenth century, a large fraction-often a majority-of congressmen served
a. two terms
b. for decades
c. only one term
d. for life
e. three terms

17. The Supreme Court struck down an effort by a state to impose term limits on
a. all incumbents
b. its own governor and legislators
c. all members of Congress
d. its own state legislators
e. its own members of Congress

18. The 113th Congress (2013-2014) had first-term members.
a. less than 30
b. 45
c. 89
d. 120
e. more than 150

19. Andrew Jackson established the precedent that a president's veto can be used
a. only on constitutional grounds
b. without first having a law declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
c. even when Congress is still in session
d. on policy grounds even when a bill may appear to be constitutional
e. without the advice and consent of the Senate

20. Which of the following did Abraham Lincoln expressly engage in without congressional approval?
a. serve as Commander-in-Chief
b. criticize Andrew Jackson
c. join the Republican Party
d. issued the Emancipation Proclamation
e. engaged in the Mexican war

21. During a period of assertive Congresses, this president cast 414 vetoes.
a. Chester Arthur
b. Grover Cleveland
c. Rutherford B. Hayes
d. James Polk
e. James Buchanan

22. Which president was one of the first to argue for a presidential legislative program?
a. Harry Truman
b. Richard Nixon
c. Herbert Hoover
d. Franklin Roosevelt
e. Woodrow Wilson

23. An important power of presidents is the power of persuasion because of their
a. limited staffs
b. opponents within the party
c. limited term of office and opponents within the party
d. vague constitutional powers and lack of ensured legislative majorities
e. lack of veto powers

24. In the first Congress, it was decided that appointed federal officials would be removeable by
a. either the president or Congress
b. the president and Congress acting together
c. the president alone
d. Congress alone
e. the Supreme Court

25. During the early years of the federal government, this department held most of the power.
a. Department of the Interior
b. War Department
c. Post Office Department
d. State Department
e. Treasury Department

Part 4:

1. Franklin Roosevelt's court-packing plan would have allowed him to name a new justice
a. for every incumbent justice older than age seventy
b. once a year, irrespective of retirements
c. every time the court struck down one of his laws
d. to replace any incumbent justice older than age seventy
e. each time a justice removed himself/herself from a case

2. The Supreme Court entered its most active period with the arrival of Chief Justice
a. White
b. Rehnquist
c. Burger
d. Taft
e. Warren

3. On the issue of state sovereignty, the text states that since around 1992, the Supreme Court has
a. restricted the ability of states to govern independently of the federal government
b. not overturned any laws based by Congress that contain instructions for state governments
c. begun to restore the view that states have the right to resist some forms of federal action
d. allowed states to resist almost all federal action
e. empowered the national government more than when Earl Warren was Chief Justice

4. When Congress passed a law that forbade anyone from carrying a gun near a school, the Supreme Court declared the law invalid because such behavior
a. was protected by the First Amendment
b. did not affect interstate commerce
c. was not proven to be dangerous
d. was jealously guarded by NRA lobbyists
e. was not considered "necessary and proper"

5. In National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius (2012), the Supreme Court ruled that states do not have to expand their Medicaid coverage because
a. the provision violates the Constitution by impermissibly threatening states with a loss of existing federal funding for a program
b. health care is purely a state issue
c. health care is purely a federal issue
d. the provision violates the Constitution by not requiring more state funding for the program
e. the provision created a tax that is not permissible

6. Which of the following courts is required by the Constitution?
a. The Supreme Court only
b. The Supreme Court and appellate courts
c. The Supreme Court, plus appellate and district courts
d. Both constitutional and legislative courts
e. Legislative courts

7. What does the U.S. Constitution have to say about the size of the Supreme Court?
a. It specifically sets the number of justices at six, later amended to nine.
b. It specifically sets the number of justices at nine.
c. It suggests but does not mandate a Court of nine justices.
d. It does not indicate how large the Court should be.
e. It specifically places the matter in the hands of the House of Representatives.

8. There are 94 in the federal judiciary.
a. constitutional courts
b. district courts
c. courts of appeal
d. legislative courts
e. supreme courts

9. Medicaid differs from Medicare in that it provides
a. medical assistance to the aged
b. medical assistance to the general public
c. medical assistance to the poor
d. catastrophic medical coverage
e. catastrophic medical coverage to veterans

10. In 2010, about Americans received Social Security benefits.
a. 25 million
b. 20 million
c. 60 million
d. 54 million
e. 50 million

11. One notable difference between the passage of Medicare (1965) and the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (2010) was the lack of
a. bipartisan support for the 2010 Act
b. bipartisan support for the 1965 Act
c. media coverage given to the 2010 Act
d. media coverage given to the 1965 Act
e. support by Democrats for the 2010 Act

12. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 does all of the following EXCEPT:
a. extend health care insurance to some 32 million uninsured Americans
b. provide federal subsidies to people who are having trouble paying
c. impose a "tax" penalty on people who do not buy health insurance
d. provide health care for all who are under 65 and cannot afford it
e. allow dependent children under age 26 to be covered by parent's insurance

13. Welfare policies in which nearly everyone benefits and nearly everyone pays are characterized by
a. entrepreneurial politics
b. interest group politics
c. client politics
d. libertarian politics
e. majoritarian politics

14. Welfare policies in which a relatively few number of people benefit but almost everyone pays are characterized by
a. majoritarian politics
b. interest group politics
c. client politics
d. entrepreneurial politics
e. libertarian politics

15. Of the following, which is NOT a means tested program?
a. Medicare
b. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
c. Food Stamps
d. Medicaid
e. Temporary Assistance for Needy Families

16. The Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) program was created to help support the children of women
a. whose husbands had deserted them
b. whose husbands were poor breadwinners
c. whose husbands had died in war
d. who gave birth out of wedlock
e. injured by automobile accidents

17. What program decreased in popularity as the public began to believe that it was encouraging out-of-wedlock births?
a. Temporary Assistance to Needy Children
b. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
c. Medicare
d. Aid to Families with Dependent Children
e. Social Security

18. How many times have U.S. presidents sent troops abroad without the authorization of Congress?
a. None
b. Ten
c. Approximately fifty
d. More than one hundred
e. More than three hundred

19. When legal issues have arisen out of foreign policy disputes between the president and Congress, the Supreme Court has generally
a. favored Congress
b. favored the president
c. refused to intervene
d. interpreted the U.S. Constitution quite literally
e. relied on the solicitor general to resolve conflicts

20. President ordered the military to move Japanese Americans from their homes on the
West Coast to "relocation centers."
a. Franklin Roosevelt
b. Harry Truman
c. Woodrow Wilson
d. Warren G. Harding
e. Abraham Lincoln

21. When legal challenges were brought in regard to the executive order that Japanese Americans on the West Coast be sent to "relocation centers,"
a. the courts refused to entertain the cases
b. district courts struck down the relocations, but they were upheld on appeal
c. district courts declared the relocations unconstitutional
d. the U.S. Supreme Court declared the relocations constitutional
e. the U.S. Supreme Court declared the relocations unconstitutional

22. The Supreme Court ruled that Harry Truman overstepped the bounds of wartime executive power when he
a. confiscated precious metals
b. froze prices and wages
c. reduced imports
d. seized steel mills
e. reduced the number of employees in state government

23. According to the text, the most important check on presidential war power is
a. the Supreme Court
b. the State Department
c. the governors
d. the Joint Chiefs of Staff
e. the control of Congress over the purse strings

24. In 1935, Congress debated whether the nation should have:
a. a Social Security system
b. Medicare
c. Medicaid
d. a federal civil rights agenda
e. nationalized health care

25. The special protection the courts once granted property rights has been reduced so the government can
a. regulate business more than in the past
b. construct national infrastructure plans
c. force redistribution of income
d. implement collective laws
e. restrict businesses less than in the past.