What extent is the generalization accurate or inaccurate

Reference no: EM13560004

The middle ages have often been referred to the "age of faith". Does this generalization seem to accurately describe the period based on medieval literature that we have (Canterbury tales, Beowulf, Song of Roland, and Dante's Divine Comedy)? Why or why not? To what extent is the generalization accurate or inaccurate? Please give examples supporting your argument from the texts provided in the question. Thank you so very much for your help.

Reference no: EM13560004

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