Normal to y=f(x) , Mathematics

If the normal to y=f(x) makes an angle of pie/4 with y-axis at (1,1) , then f''(x) is eqivalent to?

Ans) The normal makes an angle 135 degree with the x axis.

also f ''(1)=1 .....[since the tan pie/4=1=slope of normal]

Also the graph passes by (1,1) so

f(1)=1,and already proved....

f ''(1)=1

Both these are possible only if  f(x)= [x^2 + 1] / 2

hence  f '''' (x) = 1 

 

 

Posted Date: 4/5/2013 1:36:08 AM | Location : United States







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