ECONOMICS, International Economics

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In the Ricardian analysis, why does each trading partner have an incentive to produce at an endpoint of its production-possibility frontier? Why are prices of factors of production not equalized internationally in the Hecksher-Ohlin model?

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In the Ricardian analysis, why does each trading partner have an incentive to produce at an endpoint of its production-possibility frontier? Why are prices of factors of production

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