Reference no: EM131167501

1. The net effect of the effector is to shut off the original ________, or reduce its intensity, during the negative feedback mechanism to restore homeostasis.

a. response

b. receptor

c. control center

d. stimulus

2. When we imagine a person exhibiting anatomical position, the palms of the hands are assumed to be facing ________.

a. to the side

b. forward

c. down

d. behind

3. The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions is referred to as ________.

a. metabolism

b. homeostasis

c. irritability

d. output

4. The femoral region is ________ to the crural region.

a. superior (proximal)

b. inferior (distal)

c. anterior

d. lateral

5. The armpit area is called the ________ region.

a. brachial

b. antebrachial

c. axillary

d. femoral

6. The vertebral region is ________ to the sternal region.

a. lateral

b. dorsal (posterior)

c. ventral (anterior

d. medial

7. The central region of the thoracic cavity containing the heart is called the ________.

a. pleural cavity

b. mediastinum

c. quadrant

d. visceral cavity

8. Polar molecules, like water, result when electrons are shared ________.

a. unequally between atoms

b. between ions

c. equally between atoms

d. or transferred between atoms

9. An atom's outermost shell is known as its ________ shell.

a. valence

b. ionic

c. isotopic

d. inorganic

10. An acid is a molecule that releases (donates) ________.

a. protons (hydrogen ions)

b. hydroxyl ions

c. neutrons

d. electrons

11. Proteins are synthesized from ________ during synthesis reactions.

a. monosaccharides

b. amino acids

c. glycerol and fatty acids

d. nucleotides

12. Glycogen and starch are examples of a specific category of carbohydrates called ________.

a. monosaccharides

b. triglycerides

c. steroids

d. polysaccharides

13. The ________ is a network of proteins that forms an internal framework for the cell.

a. mitochondrion

b. cytoskeleton

c. rough endoplasmic reticulum

d. Golgi apparatus

14. The passive process that involves the movement of water through aquaporins is ________.

a. facilitated diffusion

b. endocytosis

c. solute pumping

d. osmosis

15. The nucleoplasm and cytosol make up the ________ fluid.

a. interstitial

b. intracellular

c. extracellular

d. nuclear

16. The movement of substances through the cell membrane against their concentration gradient is a type of ________ process.

a. active

b. passive

c. diffusion

d. filtration

17. The nucleotides of DNA join in a complementary way in which adenine pairs with ________ while cytosine pairs with ________.

a. adenine; cytosine

b. uracil; guanine

c. thymine; guanine

d. guanine; thymine

18. In cell division, the term that refers to division of the cytoplasm is ________.

a. mitosis

b. interphase

c. cytokinesis

d. meiosis

19. "Goosebumps" are caused by contractions of the ________.

a. eccrine glands

b. synovial membranes

c. arrector pili muscles

d. apocrine glands

20. The type of burn that involves injury to the epidermis and the upper region of the dermis and is red, blistered, and painful is termed as a ________-degree burn.

a. first

b. second

c. third

d. fourth

21. The white, cheesy-looking substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands and protects a baby's skin while it is floating in its water-filled sac inside the mother is called ________.

a. lanugo

b. vernix caseosa

c. milia

d. vellus

22. Hair color is due to a pigment known as ________.

a. hemoglobin

b. carotene

c. keratin

d. melanin

23. The white crescent area located over the nail matrix is called the ________.

a. lunule

b. cuticle

c. matrix

d. bed

24. The layer of the serous membrane that covers an organ is known as the ________ layer.

a. bursa

b. visceral

c. lamina propria

d. parietal

25. The first step in bone healing involves the formation of a blood-filled swelling known as a(n) ________.

a. epiphyseal line

b. bony callus

c. hematoma

d. fibrocartilage callus

26. An incomplete bone break, known as a(n) ________ fracture, is commonly seen in children.

a. spiral

b. greenstick

c. impacted

d. comminuted

27. The skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage form the ________ skeleton.

a. appendicular

b. central

c. axial

d. main

28. The large hole located in the base of the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord and brain to connect is the ________.

a. occipital condyle

b. vertebral foramen

c. intervertebral foramen

d. foramen magnum

29. The temporal bones are joined with the parietal bones at the ________ sutures.

a. coronal

b. sagittal

c. squamous

d. lambdoid

30. The shin bone is called the ________.

a. tibia

b. fibula

c. femur

d. radius

31. The head of the humerus fits into the ________ of the scapula.

a. acromion process

b. glenoid cavity

c. suprascapula notch

d. coracoid process

32. When a skeletal muscle is fully contracted, the ________ are closer to the thick filaments.

a. Z discs

b. M lines

c. cross bridges

d. A bands

33. Anaerobic glycolysis requires ________ to make ATP.

a. creatine phosphate

b. oxygen

c. glucose

d. both oxygen and glucose

34. A smooth, sustained contraction is called ________.

a. fused, or complete, tetanus

b. a twitch

c. unfused, or incomplete, tetanus

d. summing of contractions

35. Contractions in which muscles shorten and produce movement are known as ________.

a. isotonic contractions

b. twitches

c. isometric contractions

d. resistance exercises

36. The point of muscle attachment to an immovable or less movable bone is known as the ________.

a. innervation

b. action

c. insertion

d. origin

37. Muscles that perform opposite actions to one another are termed ________.

a. synergists

b. prime movers

c. antagonists

d. fixators

38. Bundles of nerve fibers (neuron processes) running through the CNS are called ________, whereas in the PNS they are called ________.

a. tracts; nerves

b. gray matter; white matter

c. axons; dendrites

d. afferent neurons; efferent neurons

39. The cell bodies of the ________ neurons are always located within the CNS.

a. proprioceptor

b. afferent

c. motor

d. sensory

40. Myelinated fibers (tracts) form ________ matter while unmyelinated fibers form ________ matter.

a. sensory; motor

b. gray; white

c. motor; sensory

d. white; gray

41. ________ connect sensory and motor neurons in neural pathways and their cell bodies are typically located in the central nervous system.

a. Interneurons (association neurons)

b. Afferent

c. Efferent

d. Proprioceptors

42. During repolarization, ________ ions are pumped out of the cell.

a. sodium

b. potassium

c. both sodium and potassium

d. calcium

43. ________ reflexes include the secretion of saliva, changes in the size of our pupils, and digestion involve the activities of smooth muscles.

a. Somatic

b. Voluntary

c. Autonomic

d. Sympathetic

44. The gel-like substance housed in the posterior segment of the eye is the ________.

a. aqueous humor

b. lens

c. vitreous humor (body)

d. cornea

45. The ability of the eye to focus on close objects is known as ________.

a. accommodation

b. refraction

c. binocular vision

d. inversion

46. Fibers from the medial side of each eye cross over to the opposite side of the brain at the ________.

a. convergence

b. optic radiation

c. optic tracts

d. optic chiasma

47. The overlapping of the two visual fields that provides for depth perception (3-D vision) results in ________.

a. accommodation

b. convergence

c. binocular vision

d. refraction

48. Loss of the same side of the visual field of both eyes from damage to the visual cortex on one side only is called ________.

a. hemianopia

b. emmetropia

c. myopia

d. presbyopia

49. The external acoustic meatus (auditory canal) is a narrow chamber situated in the ________ bone.

a. frontal

b. sphenoid

c. temporal

d. occipital

50. The structure that divides the outer ear from the middle ear is a membrane known as the ________.

a. tympanic membrane (ear drum)

b. auricle (pinna)

c. vestibule

d. cochlea

51. Calcitonin is made by the ________ cells of the thyroid gland.

a. follicle

b. parafollicular

c. beta

d. alpha

52. Mineralocorticoids regulate the concentration of ________ and ________ ions in our blood.

a. iron; magnesium

b. calcium; phosphorus

c. water; glucose

d. sodium; potassium

53. Cortisone and cortisol are types of ________ produced by the middle cortical layer of the adrenal gland.

a. mineralocorticoids

b. glucocorticoids

c. sex hormones

d. catecholamines

54. A hormone produced by the heart, known as ________, prevents the release of aldosterone in order to reduce blood volume and blood pressure.

a. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

b. cortisol

c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

d. glucagon

55. Male sex hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are called ________.

a. estrogens

b. glucocorticoids

c. androgens

d. mineralocorticoids

56. Bronze skin color, hypoglycemia, and a reduced ability to cope with stress (burnout) are signs and symptoms of ________.

a. Addison's disease

b. Graves' disease

c. Cushing's disease

d. goiter

57. A total white blood cell count above 11,000 cells/mm3 is a condition known as ________.

a. leukopenia

b. leukocytosis

c. polycythemia

d. anemia

58. The process by which white blood cells travel through the wall of blood vessels is termed ________.

a. diffusion

b. diapedesis

c. filtration

d. chemotaxis

59. Abnormally low levels of white blood cells causes a condition known as ________.

a. leukocytosis

b. anemia

c. thrombocytopenia

d. leukopenia

60. White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as ________.

a. agranulocytes

b. granulocytes

c. thrombocytes

d. neutrophils

61. Platelets are fragments of a multinucleate cell known as a ________.

a. megakaryocyte

b. erythrocyte

c. reticulocyte

d. monocyte

62. The process by which bleeding is stopped is called ________.

a. hematopoiesis

b. erythropoiesis

c. homeostasis

d. hemostasis

63. The rate of erythrocyte production is controlled by a hormone known as ________.

a. erythropoietin

b. insulin

c. growth hormone

d. aldosterone

64. The transportation of blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs and back to the left side of the heart is known as ________ circulation.

a. systemic

b. cardiac

c. pulmonary

d. coronary

65. The tiny white cords that anchor the cusps or flaps of endocardium to the walls of the ventricles are called the ________.

a. chordae tendineae

b. ligamentum arteriosum

c. ductus venosus

d. myocardium

66. Oxygented blood nourishing the myocardium comes from vessels that branch off the aorta called ________.

a. pulmonary arteries

b. pulmonary veins

c. coronary arteries

d. venae cavae

67. The walls of the ________ are substantially thicker because that chamber acts as the more powerful systemic pump of the heart.

a. left atrium

b. left ventricle

c. right atrium

d. right ventricle

68. The bicuspid valve is also referred to as the ________ valve.

a. mitral

b. pulmonary

c. semilunar

d. aortic

69. When ventricles ________, the AV valves are closed.

a. relax

b. open

c. contract

d. dilate

70. Harmful or disease-causing microorganisms from which nonspecific defenses protect the body are called ________.

a. macrophages

b. antibodies

c. pathogens

d. allergens

71. Redness, heat, swelling, and pain are the four most common indicators of ________.

a. fever

b. dehydration

c. edema

d. acute inflammation

72. The third line of defense involves the adaptive response mediated by ________.

a. lymphocytes

b. antigens

c. mucous membranes

d. pathogens

73. The binding of complement proteins to certain sugar or proteins on a foreign cell's surface is called ________.

a. cellular immunity (cellular-mediated immunity)

b. complement fixation

c. positive chemotaxis

d. diapedesis

74. Small proteins known as ________ are secreted by virus-infected cells to help defend cells that have not yet been infected.

a. haptens

b. pyrogens

c. interferons

d. antigens

75. A(n) ________ is any substance capable of mobilizing our immune system and provoking an immune response.

a. interferon

b. antibody

c. antigen

d. pyrogen

76. When breathing in, air enters the trachea through the ________.

a. glottis

b. epiglottis

c. esophagus

d. thyroid cartilage

77. The C-shaped rings that reinforce the trachea are constructed of ________.

a. fibrocartilage

b. elastic cartilage

c. hyaline cartilage

d. compact bone

78. The flap of ________ cartilage that protects the opening of the larynx is called the epiglottis.

a. thyroid cartilage

b. elastic

c. hyaline

d. fibrous

79. Folds of mucous membrane called ________ vibrate to provide speech.

a. vocal folds (true vocal cords)

b. hyaline cartilage rings

c. epiglottis

d. uvula

80. The serous membrane that surrounds each lung is created by a parietal and visceral ________.

a. pleura

b. pericardium

c. peritoneum

d. mediastinum

81. The division of the trachea produces two tubes called the right and left main (primary) ________.

a. bronchioles

b. bronchi

c. alveolar ducts

d. alveolar sacs

82. The smallest conducting passageways of the lungs are known as ________.

a. main (primary) bronchi

b. alveoli

c. bronchioles

d. alveolar ducts

83. Intrinsic factor, produced by cells in the stomach, is necessary for the absorption of vitamin ________ in the small intestine.

A) B9

B) B3

C) B6

D) B12

84. The three subdivisions of the small intestine are ________.

a. cecum, colon, rectum

b. duodenum, jejunum, ileum

c. cardiac, body, pylorus

d. ileum, cecum, rectum

85. The fingerlike projections of the small intestine increase the surface area and are known as ________.

a. haustra

b. cilia

c. villi

d. rugae

86. Bile is formed by the ________.

a. spleen

b. liver

c. gallbladder

d. pancreas

87. Deep folds of both the mucosa and submucosa in the small intestine that increase surface are known as ________.

a. circular folds (plicae circulares)

b. microvilli

c. haustra

d. villi

88. Cells abundant within the large intestine that produce large amounts of lubricating mucus to aid in the passage of feces to the end of the digestive tract are called ________.

a. parietal cells

b. chief cells

c. goblet cells

d. enteroendocrine cells

89. Filtrate formed during glomerular filtration is captured by the ________.

a. renal pyramid

b. renal hilum

c. glomerular (Bowman's) capsule

d. renal column

90. The process that removes ions such as potassium and hydrogen from the blood and places them into the nephron for removal from the body as urine is known as ________.

a. glomerular filtration

b. tubular reabsorption

c. tubular secretion

d. osmosis

91. Filtrate contains everything in blood plasma except for ________.

a. water

b. blood proteins

c. solutes

d. electrolytes

92. Specific gravity is the term used to compare how much heavier urine is than ________.

a. distilled water

b. milk

c. saliva

d. blood

93. The tube connecting each kidney to the urinary bladder is the ________.

a. urethra

b. calyx

c. ureter

d. ductus (vas) deferens

 

94. The smooth triangular region of the urinary bladder base that is outlined by the openings of the two ureters and the urethra is called the ________.

a. trigone

b. calyx

c. pelvis

d. hilum

95. The helmet-like region of the sperm that is similar to a large lysosome and assists penetration of the egg is called the ________.

a. flagellum

b. midpiece

c. spermatid

d. acrosome

96. The process that streamlines spermatids into sperm is known as ________.

a. mitosis

b. spermiogenesis

c. oogenesis

d. spermatogenesis

97. The hormone testosterone is produced by the ________ cells of the testes.

a. spermatogonia

b. oogonia

c. seminiferous

d. interstitial

98. The female reproductive organs, known as ________, produce both eggs (ova) and hormones such as estrogen and progesterone.

a. follicles

b. uterine (fallopian) tubes

c. testes

d. ovaries

99. A mature ovarian follicle that is ready to be ejected from an ovary is called a ________.

a. primary oocyte

b. vesicular (Graafian) follicle

c. ovum

d. corpus luteum

100. The ducts or tubes responsible for receiving the ovulated oocyte and providing the site for fertilization are the ________.

a. uterine (fallopian) tubes

b. vagina

c. ductus (vas) deferens

d. uterus