Use captive-product pricing to set the price

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Q1. The simplest pricing method is ________.
a. going-rate and sealed-bid pricing
b. cost-plus pricing
c. break-even analysis
d. target return pricing
e. value-based pricing

Q2. It is most typical for producers who use captive-product pricing to set the price of the main product ________ and set ________ on the supplies necessary to use the product.
a. high; low markups
b. moderately; moderate markups
c. low; high markups
d. high; high markups
e. low; low markups

Q3. Mach 3 razor blades must be used in the Mach 3 razor. Which type of pricing is most likely used?
a. optional-product pricing
b. captive-product pricing
c. by-product pricing
d. allowance pricing
e. product line pricing

Q4. Busch Stadium in St. Louis charges different prices for seats in different areas of the ballpark, even though their costs are the same. What is this form of pricing called?
a. penetration
b. location-based
c. skimming
d. product-form
e. time-based

Q5. General Motors prices its automobiles to achieve a 15 to 20 percent profit on its investment. This approach is called ________.
a. target return pricing
b. value-based pricing
c. cost-plus pricing
d. low-price image
e. going-rate pricing

Q6. ________ are the sum of the ________ and ________ for any given level of production.
a. Fixed costs; variable; total costs
b. Break-even costs; fixed; total costs
c. Total costs; fixed; variable costs
d. Fixed costs; total; variable costs
e. Variable costs; fixed; total costs

Q7. When Pepsi came out with Pepsi Blue and priced it at half price to attract buyers, Pepsi was using ________.
a. promotional allowances
b. market-penetration pricing
c. discount pricing
d. marketing-skimming pricing
e. new-product pricing

Q8. Which of the following is a cost-based approach to pricing?
a. going-rate pricing
b. good-value pricing
c. break-even pricing
d. value-based pricing
e. A and C

Q9. Which of the following statements about a break-even chart is true?
a. It is a tool marketers use to examine the relationship between supply and demand.
b. It is used to determine how the customer-perceived value changes with value-added pricing.
c. It uses variable costs, the unit price, and fixed costs.
d. It is a tool used to calculate fixed costs.
e. It shows the level of earnings a company has during an accounting period.

Q10. Value-based pricing is the reverse process of ________ pricing.
a. variable cost
b. value-added
c. good-value
d. cost-plus
e. cost-based

Q11. Under ________, the market consists of many buyers and sellers who trade over a range of prices rather than a single market price.
a. monopolistic competition
b. pure competition
c. oligopolistic competition
d. a pure monopoly
e. socialism

Q12. ________ involves charging a constant low price with few or no temporary price discounts.
a. High-low pricing
b. Penetration pricing
c. Cost-plus pricing
d. Everyday low pricing (EDLP)
e. Target return pricing

Q13. Which of the following is an example of a multichannel distribution system?
a. J. C. Penney's catalog and retail store sales
b. Starbuck's location inside of book stores
c. a hotel providing guest privileges at a health spa across the street
d. Avon's door-to-door distribution
e. Wal-Mart locating to several countries

Q14. Intermediaries play an important role in matching ________.
a. information and promotion
b. dealer with customer
c. manufacturer to product
d. strategy and product
e. supply and demand

Q15. A distinguishing feature of a contractual VMS is that coordination and conflict management among the independent members of the channel are attained through ________.
a. contractual agreements
b. working partnerships
c. agents and brokers
d. natural competitive forces
e. limited liability incorporation

Q16. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of a multichannel system?
a. inefficiencies
b. channel conflict
c. fewer domestic sales
d. less net profit
e. declining employee morale

Q17. Marketing logistics involves which of the following distribution flows?
a. outbound and inbound only
b. outbound, inbound, and reverse only
c. outbound and reverse only
d. outbound only
e. inbound and reverse only

Q18. An advantage of a vertical marketing system (VMS) over a conventional distribution channel is that it acts as a ________ system.
a. unified
b. task-driven
c. socially responsible
d. customer-driven
e. democratic

Q19. To a producer of goods, a greater number of channel levels means ________ and greater channel complexity.
a. fewer channel members
b. less distance between producer and end consumer
c. more potential ideas
d. less control
e. higher taxes

Q20. Hybrid marketing systems are also called ________.
a. horizontal multichannel systems
b. administered franchises
c. multichannel distribution systems
d. dual distribution systems
e. contractual marketing systems

Q21. Today, a growing number of firms now outsource some or all of their logistics to ________.
a. disintermediaries
b. third-party logistics providers
c. channel members
d. competitors
e. cross-functional teams

Q22. In designing its marketing channel, Chairs for Every Occasion has moved from a make-and-sell view of its business, which focused on productive inputs and factory capacity as a starting point for marketing planning, to a sense-and-respond view, which begins instead with the needs of target customers. With this new view, Chairs for Every Occasion is developing its ________.
a. demand chain
b. wholesaler chain
c. vertical marketing system
d. supply chain
e. logistics

Q23. Another term for the supply chain that suggests a sense-and-respond view of the market is ________.
a. demand chain
b. supply and demand chain
c. channel of distribution
d. distribution channel
e. physical distribution

Q24. Which of the following is an example of a manufacturer-sponsored retailer franchise system?
a. Starbucks operating within Target stores
b. Ford and its network of independent franchised dealers
c. fast-food restaurants such as McDonald's and Burger King
d. motels such as Holiday Inn and Ramada Inn
e. licensed bottlers that bottle and sell Coca-Cola to retailers

Q25. Like retailers, wholesalers must ________ their target markets and ________ themselves effectively, for they cannot serve everyone.
a. position; define
b. identify; compare
c. define; position
d. franchise; discount
e. discount; franchise

Q26. Most ________ retailers are significantly behind ________ retailers in global expansion.
a. American; European and Asian
b. Asian; African
c. European; American
d. African; Peruvian
e. Asian; American

Q27. In order to ________, wholesalers can propose automatic reordering systems, set up management-training and advising systems, or even sponsor a voluntary chain.
a. identify more profitable customers
b. determine product and service assortments
c. settle on pricing
d. build better relationships with customers
e. define their target markets

Q28. You own an independent store in your neighborhood. You still like to offer fresh seafood in your meat display case. Which type of wholesaler might best serve you?
a. mail-order wholesaler
b. rack jobber
c. agents and brokers
d. cash-and-carry wholesaler
e. drop shipper

Q29. ________ is the basis of all discount operations and is typically used by sellers of convenience goods. Retailers offering this level of service require customers to perform their own 'locate-compare-select' process in order to save money.
a. Full-service
b. Specialty-service
c. Self-service
d. Wholesale
e. Limited-service

Q30. ________, such as Sears, provide more sales assistance because they carry more shopping goods about which customers need information. Their increased operating costs result in higher prices.
a. Limited-service retailers
b. Self-service retailers
c. Off-price retailers
d. Specialty-service retailers
e. Full-service retailers

Q31. Which type of small store carries a limited line of high-turnover convenience goods and makes most of its revenues from cigarette, beverage, and gasoline sales?
a. convenience
b. department
c. hypermarket
d. supermarket
e. chain

Q32. ________ are flourishing due to increased use of market segmentation and market targeting.
a. Off-price stores
b. Chain stores
c. Specialty stores
d. Discount stores
e. Superstores

Q33. A(n) ________ brings buyers and sellers together and assists in negotiations.
a. broker
b. wholesaler
c. retail convergence
d. retailer
e. agent

Q34. In-store demonstrations, displays, contests, and visiting celebrities are all examples of ________.
a. public relations
b. sales promotions
c. advertising
d. agent promotions
e. direct marketing

Q35. ________ operate in warehouse-like facilities, sell a limited selection of items, and offer few frills. Customers pay annual membership fees and are able to purchase goods at deep discounts.
a. Superstores
b. Factory outlets
c. Discount stores
d. Independent off-price retailers
e. Warehouse clubs

Q36. In the battle for 'share of stomachs,' some supermarkets are cutting costs and attempting to compete more effectively with food discounters, while others are moving upscale, providing improved store environments and higher-quality food offerings. These two different strategies represent differences in ________.
a. positioning
b. place decisions
c. retail technology
d. wholesaling
e. retail convergence

Q37. Mike's Bike Shop has a new print advertisement appearing in the local newspaper. Readers will notice which of the following first in the advertisement?
a. copy
b. subheadlines
c. color
d. headline
e. illustration

Q38. Franklin & Marshall College wishes to contact high school seniors at independent schools in Pennsylvania. Which of the following media would be most effective and efficient?
a. radio ads throughout the state
b. billboards throughout the state
c. a direct mail piece sent to the schools
d. a 30-second commercial on local cable channels throughout the state
e. local newspapers ads throughout the state

Q39. To produce better communications consistency, a unified company image, and greater sales impact, some companies employ a(n) ________.
a. media buyer
b. marketing communications director
c. advertising agency
d. public relations specialist
e. personal sales force

Q40. An amateur video showing the result of mixing Diet Coke with Mentos candies is an example of which growing trend in advertising?
a. competitive consumer messages
b. consumer-driven promotions
c. YouTube webisodes
d. consumer-generated messages
e. multiple minicampaigns

Q41. Scheduling ads unevenly, or ________, builds awareness that is intended to be carried over to the next advertising period.
a. segmenting
b. pulsing
c. continuity
d. sequencing
e. hard hitting

Q42. Kathy Champe, a public relations specialist for a regional chain of pharmacies, regularly contacts members of the local and state-wide media with information about community events and charity fundraisers sponsored by her company. This is an example of the ________ function of public relations.
a. press relations
b. lobbying
c. development
d. product publicity
e. public affairs

Q43. One way to measure the ________ effects of advertising is to compare past sales with past advertising expenditures.
a. interest and return
b. sales and profit
c. promotion and cost
d. communication
e. loyalty

Q44. After creating message strategy statements, the advertiser must develop a(n) ________ that will bring the message strategy to life in a distinctive and memorable way.
a. execution style
b. media vehicle
c. customer benefit
d. customer strategy
e. creative concept

Q45. Which of the following are the three characteristics an advertising appeal should have?
a. meaningful, believable, and distinctive
b. humorous, memorable, and interesting
c. trendy, compelling, and appealing
d. unique, emotional, and entertaining
e. engaging, informative, and stylish

Q46. ________ is the company's most expensive promotion tool.
a. Mass media
b. Advertising
c. Public relations
d. Personal selling
e. Publicity

Q47. An ad for a new convection oven shows a busy professional woman serving dinner to her family. The convection oven is seen in the background, and the headline reads, 'The latest development in time travel.' This is an example of what type of execution style?
a. fantasy
b. testimonial evidence
c. mood or image
d. scientific evidence
e. slice of life

Q48. Tara Keegan owns Live Well, a small chain of health stores offering a variety of natural health products and related services. In order to implement integrated marketing communications, Tara has hired a marketing communications director, whose job it will be to ensure that each ________ will deliver a consistent and positive message about the company.
a. media vehicle
b. public relations message
c. logo
d. advertisement
e. brand contact

Q49. At Finley's Fine Goods, members of the sales force and marketing department tend to have disagreements when things go wrong with a customer. The marketers blame the salespeople for poorly executing their strategies, while the salespeople blame the marketers for being out of touch with the customer. Which of the following steps should upper-level management at Finley's Fine Goods take to help bring the sales and marketing functions closer together?
a. establish a complex sales force structure
b. create an inside sales force
c. employ a chief revenue officer
d. establish a customer sales force structure
e. adopt a sales force automation system

Q50. Manufacturers direct more sales promotion dollars toward ________ than to ________.
a. consumers; retailers
b. retailers; wholesalers
c. retailers and wholesalers; consumers
d. customers; wholesalers
e. mature consumers; teenagers

Q51. An IBM sales representative is giving a product demonstration to a Best Buy representative. Assisting with the demonstration are a Best Buy engineer, a financial analyst, and an information systems specialist. If IBM wins the Best Buy account, then all four IBM representatives will service the Best Buy account. This is an example of ________.
a. inside selling
b. sales promoting
c. prospecting
d. team selling
e. territorial selling

Q52. Your inside sales force is responsible for prospecting and qualifying customers. Which of the following will likely occur?
a. The outside sales force will call on all prospects.
b. The number of qualified customers will exceed the number of prospects.
c. Your inside sales force will attend meetings with qualified customers.
d. A salesperson may have to approach many qualified customers just to make one sale.
e. A and C

Q53. The sales force at Messimer Computing recently began telemarketing and Web selling. How will telemarketing and Web selling most likely benefit Messimer Computing?
a. The outside sales force of Messimer will be freed up to work more with the marketing department.
b. Messimer sales reps will be able to service hard-to-reach customers more effectively.
c. The inside sales force of Messimer will receive better compensation than the outside sales force.
d. Messimer sales reps will need to spend less face-to-face time with large, high-value customers.
e. Messimer sales reps will be able to work from home offices more regularly.

Q54. A salesperson who researches a company's buying styles and product line is most likely in the ________ stage of the selling process.
a. presentation
b. prospecting
c. preapproach
d. closing
e. approach

Q55. Sales ________ encourage a sales force to make a selling effort that is above and beyond the normal expectation.
a. quotas
b. plans
c. reports
d. contests
e. teams

Q56. Helping the salesforce 'work smart' is the goal of ________.
a. sales compensation
b. return on sales investment
c. the organizational climate
d. sales supervision
e. sales motivation

Q57. Pressure to increase short-term sales, less differentiated brands, declining advertising efficiency, and increasingly deal-oriented customers are all factors contributing to the ________.
a. growth of sales promotion
b. decline of sales promotion
c. decline of personal selling
d. decline of customer relationships
e. growth of personal selling

Q58. Which sales management tool shows a salesperson which customers and prospects to see during the next 12 months and in which months, as well as which activities to carry out?
a. time-and-duty analysis
b. annual call plan
c. sales force automation system
d. positive incentives plan
e. sales quota plan

Q59. Of the major consumer promotion tools, which is the most effective for introducing a new product or creating excitement for an existing one?
a. samples
b. coupons
c. cash refunds
d. rebates
e. advertising

Q60. Which of the following best describes a salesperson who would be categorized as a value spendthrift?
a. believes management pursues a value-driven strategy
b. regularly gains more business at the same price
c. documents claims to customers about superior monetary value
d. explains to the firm that it needs more evidence of excellent value
e. concedes on price in order to quickly close sales deals

Q61. In this step of the sales process, salespeople can now take advantage of technologies such as DVDs, handheld computers, interactive white boards, and laptop computers to show customers images that support the salesperson's verbal message.
a. follow-up
b. presentation and demonstration
c. closing
d. prospecting
e. preapproach

Q62. Marlene Arau is a member of the sales force at Urban Fashions, a clothing manufacturer. Marlene is preparing for a first meeting with a wholesaler who is a potential customer, and she is preparing herself by learning as much as she can about the wholesaler's organization. Marlene is in the ________ step of the personal selling process.
a. qualifying
b. preapproach
c. approach
d. handling objections
e. prospecting

Q63. After a company has determined its sales force structure, it is ready to determine what ________ it needs.
a. marketing-sales liaison
b. compensation package
c. sales force supervision
d. team structure
e. sales force size

Q64. Which sales management tool shows a salesperson which customers and prospects to see during the next 12 months and in which months, as well as which activities to carry out?
a. positive incentives plan
b. sales force automation system
c. annual call plan
d. sales quota plan
e. time-and-duty analysis

Q65. Manufacturers direct more sales promotion dollars toward ________ than to ________.
a. mature consumers; teenagers
b. customers; wholesalers
c. consumers; retailers
d. retailers and wholesalers; consumers
e. retailers; wholesalers

Q66. When a firm sets out to analyze, plan, implement, and control sales force activities, it is undertaking ________.
a. sales force management
b. promotional objectives
c. team selling efforts
d. marketing design
e. co-op selling and advertising

Q67. ________ consists of short-term incentives to encourage the purchase or sale of a product or service. This offers reasons to buy it now.
a. A patronage reward
b. Advertising
c. Sales promotion
d. A segmented promotion
e. Publicity

Q68. ________ are goods offered either free or at low cost as an incentive to buy a product; they may come in-pack, on-pack, or delivered through the mail.
a. Point-of-purchase promotions
b. Premiums
c. Price packs
d. Cash refund offers
e. Rebates

Q69. According to research conducted by Gallup Management Consulting Group, which of the following is one of the four key talents a successful salesperson should possess?
a. easy-going nature
b. technological know-how
c. understanding of many cultures
d. creativity
e. disciplined work style

Q70. Which of the following best describes a salesperson who would be categorized as a value spendthrift?
a. concedes on price in order to quickly close sales deals
b. explains to the firm that it needs more evidence of excellent value
c. believes management pursues a value-driven strategy
d. regularly gains more business at the same price
e. documents claims to customers about superior monetary value

Q71. The prospecting step in the selling process includes identifying and ________ the prospects.
a. approaching
b. calling on
c. qualifying
d. preselling
e. making an appointment with

Q72. Of the main consumer promotion tools, which is the most costly?
a. coupons
b. advertising
c. billboards
d. samples
e. cash refunds

Q73. As global trade is growing, global competition is ________.
a. leveling off
b. declining
c. intensifying
d. erratic
e. contracting

Q74. World product groups, geographical organizations, and international subsidiaries are all options for organizing a(n)________.
a. indirect exporting venture
b. standardized global marketing strategy
c. joint ownership
d. international division
e. export department

Q75. In international trade, it is ideal if the buyer can pay in ________.
a. the seller's currency
b. the buyer's currency
c. the euro
d. countertrade
e. barter

Q76. Very few market opportunities are available in a(n) ________ economy.
a. subsistence
b. raw material exporting
c. emerging
d. industrializing
e. industrial

Q77. Members of management at Growing Green, a company that markets organic and environmentally friendly gardening and landscaping supplies and equipment, are evaluating the benefits and disadvantages of indirect exporting, direct exporting, and licensing. In which stage of the international marketing process is Growing Green?
a. deciding on the global marketing organization
b. deciding whether to go global
c. deciding which markets to enter
d. deciding how to enter the market
e. deciding on the global marketing program

Q78. ________ is a group of nations organized to work toward common goals in the regulation of international trade.
a. A joint venture
b. A global firm
c. A multinational enterprise
d. An economic community
e. A standardized marketing mix

Q79. ________ means selling largely the same products and using the same marketing approaches worldwide.
a. Adapted global marketing
b. Export marketing
c. Standardized global marketing
d. Global market mixing
e. Multinational strategy

Q80. ________ means adjusting the marketing strategy and mix elements to each international target market.
a. Whole channel view
b. Communication adaptation
c. Standardized global marketing
d. Global market mixing
e. Adapted global marketing

Q81. Azerbaijan imported wheat from Romania in exchange for crude oil and Vietnam exchanged rice for Philippine fertilizer and coconuts. Both scenarios are examples of which of the following?
a. exchange controls
b. tariffs
c. blocked currency
d. quotas
e. barter

Q82. ________ industries are safe from foreign competition.
a. Most
b. Major
c. European Union
d. Few
e. NAFTA

Q83. The ________ concept holds that marketing programs will be more effective when tailored to the unique needs of each targeted customer group.
a. promotion
b. communication
c. marketing
d. global
e. international

Q84. Which of the following is true regarding economic communities?
a. UNASUR represents the world's single largest market.
b. Trade barriers have increased between the United States and Mexico since NAFTA was created.
c. Tariffs are typically lower or nonexistent between countries in the community.
d. CAFTA has been less successful than UNASUR.
e. Converting European currencies into the euro has been a failure.

Q85. ________ is an organized movement of citizens and government agencies to improve the rights and power of buyers in relation to sellers.
a. The Bill of Rights
b. Environmentalism
c. Consumerism
d. The Human Relations Movement
e. Grassroots politics

Q86. In which of the following scenarios would high-pressure selling tactics typically be most advantageous for marketers?
a. selling situations with dissatisfied customers
b. selling situations with long-time customers
c. selling situations with a company's most highly valued customers
d. one-time selling situations
e. selling situations with new customers with a high likelihood of becoming repeat customers

Q87. The ________ specifically focuses on future company needs rather than both future company and future customer needs.
a. sustainable marketing concept
b. strategic planning concept
c. consumer business concept
d. societal marketing concept
e. marketing concept

Q88. Baker Enterprises produces several new products that have low appeal but may benefit consumers in the long run. What is the most accurate classification of these products?
a. unpleasing
b. salutary
c. deficient
d. pleasing
e. desirable

Q89. When major chain retailers avoid placing stores in disadvantaged neighborhoods, they are likely to be accused of the discriminatory practice of ________.
a. embargo
b. scrambling merchandise
c. licensing
d. puffery
e. redlining

Q90. TerraPass is a company that offers consumers the opportunity to buy carbon offsets, which are contributions to projects that combat global warming by reducing carbon emissions. TerraPass offers contribution packages for driving, flying, and home energy use. Through TerraPass, consumers can pay some of the ________ costs of their private goods and services.
a. safety
b. social
c. distribution
d. health
e. promotional

Q91. Cultural pollution can also be referred to as ________.
a. commercial noise
b. a marketer's inability to identify a target market
c. air pollution
d. language barriers
e. zipping or zapping

Q92. Setting prices below cost, threatening to cut off business with suppliers, and discouraging the purchase of a competitor's products are all examples of ________.
a. predatory competition
b. barriers to entering a market
c. excessive materialism
d. acquisitions
e. routine competition

Q93. The ________ in the United States came about because of concern for acid rain, toxic wastes, litter, and the damage caused by strip mining and forest depletion.
a. first wave of modern environmentalism
b. first wave of enlightened marketing
c. second wave of consumerism
d. current wave of environmentalism
e. second wave of modern environmentalism

Q94. Critics claim that companies in the ________ industries introduce planned streams of new products that make older models obsolete, a form of planned obsolescence that harms consumers.
a. food and beverage
b. car and truck
c. consumer electronics and computer
d. financial and entertainment
e. housing and construction

Q95. When Hancock & Dunberry developed and introduced new simplified wills for the elderly and less educated markets, less expensive home visits, and a free statewide legal referral service, the law firm began practicing ________ marketing.
a. societal
b. sense-of-mission
c. customer-value
d. consumer-oriented
e. innovative

Q96. The concept of ________ holds that a company's marketing should support the best long-run performance of the marketing system.
a. consumer-oriented marketing
b. the free enterprise system
c. consumerism
d. global marketing
e. sustainable marketing

Q97. The overselling of private goods results in ________, such as cars causing traffic jams, air pollution, injuries, and deaths.
a. materialism
b. social costs
c. misdirected funding
d. opportunity costs
e. cultural pollution

Q98. Advertising 'puffery' is a term for ________.
a. innocent exaggeration for effect
b. emotional appeals to consumers
c. subliminal appeals to consumers
d. value-added promotions
e. a straightforward promotional message

Q99. A company that produces and heavily markets cigarettes, with many promotions aimed at young (although legal age) nonsmokers, most likely follows which of the following as a guiding principle?
a. the philosophy that companies should have a social conscience
b. the philosophy of consumer-oriented marketing
c. the philosophy of sustainable marketing
d. the philosophy that companies can do in good conscience whatever the market and legal systems allow
e. the philosophy of consumerism

Q100. It is most accurate to say that within a company, ethics and social responsibility require a ________.
a. time commitment that most firms do not have
b. future-looking approach
c. high-level ethical officer
d. separate budget
e. total corporate commitment

Reference no: EM13946284

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writing an essay 1800 words why and how has macau developed in recent years as a world leading centre for casinos? what

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Analyze the number of people who participated in the sample compared to the number in the population. Most news articles will not provide information on the number of people surveyed. In this case critique the validity of the results. (Be sure to cit..

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