Reference no: EM13186316

1. The therapeutic technique by which a phobic stimulus is conditioned to be associated with relaxation rather than anxiety is known as: 
a. extinction 
b. dishabituation 
c. systematic desensitization 
d. spontaneous recovery 

2. What strengthens the likelihood of a behavior happening again through the removal or reduction of an aversive stimulus? 
a. punishment 
b. negative reinforcer 
c. primary reinforcer 
d. shaping 

3. Which of the following is the type of reinforcement that results in a slow acquisition of a response but a great resistance to extinction? 
a. partial reinforcement 
b. continuous reinforcement 
c. biological predisposition 
d. punishment 

4. Observing and imitating a specific behavior is known as: 
a. latent learning 
b. being a poser 
c. primary reinforcement 
d. modeling 

5. When Frank's mother-in-law yells at him, as she frequently does, he gets angry. Whenever he sees her, he feels hostile. What is the unconditioned stimulus? 
a. feeling hostile 
b. getting angry 
c. Frank's mother-in-law 
d. yelling 

6. The "classical" experiment associated with classical conditioning is 
a. dogs salivating to a tone 
b. rats pushing a lever to get a reward 
c. apes figuring out how to reach a banana outside the cage 
d. all of the above 

7. An event that increases the probability of the behavior which it most immediately follows is called: 
a. punishment 
b. reinforcement 
c. a free lunch 
d. the kiss of death 

8. An educational bias in problem solving could 
a. prevent an adult from seeing a solution evident to a child 
b. produce language or mathematical solutions instead of form or spatial solutions 
c. produce the appearance of racial, ethnic, or age differences in problem solving ability 
d. all of the above 

9. The Ziegarnik effect normally provides us with a sense of completion at the end of a task. This can be a disadvantage in solving problems that 
a. have more than one discrete step 
b. have more than one solution 
c. have to do with field dressing cigarette butts in the 30th Street Station 
d. all of the above 

10. The tendency to fill in the gaps in memory leads to: 
a. recovering more information 
b. filling in the gaps with faulty information 
c. seeming to recover nonexistent memories 
d. all of the above 

11. The research of Loftus on eyewitness testimony has shown that: 
a. we tend to remember what we have seen 
b. experiences after our experience can replace what we have seen 
c. both "a" and "b" 
d. "d" is for dummies 

12. From our discussions of perception and memory, which of the following is true: 
a. what you see is true 
b. what you remember is true 
c. what you think is true depends on experience and evolutionary characteristics of the 
brain 
d. all of the above 

13. Memories can be perceived through 
a. vision only 
b. hearing only 
c. vision and hearing only 
d. all the senses 

14. If you look up a zip code and forget it before you get it typed on your letter, this is 
a failure of 
a. the sensory 
b. short term memory 
c. long term memory 
d. intermediate memory 

15. What are the mean and standard deviation (respectively) for the number of items can people keep in short-term memory? 
a. 7 and 2 
b. 5 and 9 
c. 2 and 7 
d. 8 bits or one byte 

16. Information is grouped for storage in short-term memory through a process called: 
a. chunking 
b. categorizing 
c. rehearsal 
d. cuing 

17. What is personality? 
a. Set of traits that occur in all situations 
b. Unconscious urges that control behavior 
c. Complex network of relatively consistent behaviors 
d. Pattern of learned responses to specific stimuli 

18. What personality theory would view smoking as a fixation? 
a. Freudian theory 
b. Social-learning theory 
c. Radical behaviorism 
d. Self-actualization theory 

19. Which of the following criteria should be used to determine whether a psychological test is "good"? 
a. reliability and validity 
b. objectivity and projective nature 
c. content and popularity 
d. structure and determinants 

20. Which of the following problems is (are) associated with intelligence or personality testing? 
a. Invasion of privacy 
b. Results falling into the wrong hands 
c. Racial bias 
d. All of the above 

21. The ancient Greeks had a four factor theory of personality based on body humors like blood, bile and phlegm. Although the "cause" may be wrong, the descriptions are still valid. This makes their theory as good as: 
a. Freud's 
b. Eysenck's 
c. Your own 
d. All of the above. 

22. Judy prefers to study in the library because she sees many of her friends there. Using Eysenck's system, Judy seems to be: 
a. outgoing 
b. melancholic 
c. introverted 
d. extroverted 

23. Which child will most likely do better in school; the one who- 
a. first walked 
b. first talked 
c. was first spanked 
d. has a higher IQ. 

24. Which of the following questions is the basis of the nature-nurture controversy? 
a. What is the best way to study prenatal development? 
b. Do we inherit our abilities or learn them? 
c. Are biological engineering techniques ethical? 
d. How does birth order affect behavior? 

25. A 5-year-old and a 14-year-old child are given the same problem. According to Piaget, what might be the difference in how they solve the problem? 
a. The 14-year-old will use concrete reasoning. 
b. The 5-year-old will use moral reasoning. 
c. The 5-year-old may find an egocentric solution. 
d. The 14-year-old will find an egocentric solution. 

26. Water is poured from a tall narrow glass into a short wide one. A little boy says that the short one contains less water than the tall glass because it is "not as big." His older brother explains that they both contain the same amount of water. What 
characteristic has the older brother developed that the little boy lacks? 
a. Objective permanence 
b. Autonomic responses 
c. Egocentrism 
d. Conservation 

27. According to Freud, which component of your personality operates in the pleasure principle? 
a. Superego 
b. Ego 
c. Id 
d. Conscience 

28. Which of the following is a function of the ego? 
a. seeking pleasure 
b. aggressiveness and destruction 
c. balancing the demands of the id and the superego 
d. seeking perfection 

29. What is the purpose of defense mechanisms? 
a. They determine causes of anxiety. 
b. They protect us from experiencing anxiety. 
c. They control archetypes. 
d. They aid progression through the stages of psychosocial development. 

30. A father scolds his little daughter for not cleaning her room. The girl is furious but says nothing to her father. Instead, she pulls the cat's tail. Which of the following terms best describes her behavior? 
a. Perfection principle 
b. Reaction formation 
c. Rationalization 
d. Displacement 

31. According to Freud, what defense mechanism did Leonardo da Vinci use when he painted madonnas? 
a. Displacement 
b. Sublimation 
c. Projection 
d. Rationalization 

32. According to Freudian theory, which of the following is a probable outcome for a boy who is toilet-trained too strictly? 
a. He will be productive and creative. 
b. He will be overly neat and stingy. 
c. He will develop a castration complex. 
d. He will be unable to develop an Oedipus complex. 

33. Assume that you have "faked" symptoms to gain admission into a mental hospital. On the basis of the results of Rosenhan's study, who would probably suspect that you were normal? 
a. Patients 
b. Nurses on your ward 
c. Attending psychiatrists and psychologists 
d. all of the above 

34. Jen is so obsessed with thoughts of suicide that she has difficulty studying and attending class. She no longer cares about herself or her education. What might you suspect is Jen's disorder? 
a. OCD 
b. Generalized anxiety disorder 
c. Depression 
d. Dissociative disorder 

35. Which of the following are considered positive symptoms of schizophrenia? 
a. Delusions 
b. Hallucinations 
c. Disorganized behavior 
d. All of the above 

36. A nuclear power company has a policy which requires candidates for employment to take the MMPI. Some of the candidates are so eager for a job that they try to create a favorable impression by the way they answer the questions. It is likely that these 
candidates will: 
a. be able to fake their responses successfully 
b. score low on the self-monitoring scale 
c. expose their intent on the validity scales 
d. score high on the paranoia scale and low on the psychopathy scale. 

37. Agoraphobia is the irrational fear of: 
a. long-haired domestic cats 
b. open or public places 
c. storms, thunder, and lightning 
d. contamination or germs 

38. Dan believes that computers are trying to take control of the world. He claims they took over the military first, and then they took over the business world, and now personal computers are taking over Drexel and the minds of private individuals. He believes the computers want to destroy him because his is the only mind they can't control. Which of the following appears to be the most appropriate amateur diagnosis in this case? 
a. catatonic schizophrenia 
b. paranoid schizophrenia 
c. hebephrenic schizophrenia 
d. undifferentiated schizophrenia 

39. Which imaging technique shows brain activity in a living person? 
a. functional Magnetic Resonance imaging (fMRI) 
b. PET Scan 
c. near infrared spectroscopy 
d. all of the above 

40. Which personality test is a projective test 
a. MMPI 
b. Wisconsin Card Sort 
c. Rorschach test 
d. WAIS 

41. Eating Disorders, like most psychological disorders, have bio-psycho-social causations. One biological cause would appear to be: 
a. magazine articles 
b. Miss America pageants 
c. deficiencies in calorie counting 
d. deficiencies in serotonin pathways to the hypothalamus 

42. The MRI below is of a shriveled brain of a young adult. From our discussions which of the following would you choose as a probable cause of brain damage. 
a. chewing gum 
b. sex 
c. use of "recreational drugs" 
d. playing competition chess 

43. Mary alternates between periods of being sullen and uncommunicative and periods of enormous energy, hyperactivity, and ebullience to the point of raving. Mary is probably 
a. suffering from a personality disorder. 
b. suffering from a bipolar mood disorder. 
c. schizophrenic 
d. suffering from both a generalized anxiety disorder and a depressive disorder. 

44. Believing that we have control over the duration of a stressful event 
a. lessens anxiety, even when the belief is erroneous. 
b. produces tension and stress. 
c. often leads to learned helplessness. 
d. activates the use of defense mechanisms in most cases. 

45. Within the past week, Gabrielle has married an army officer, moved into her dream home, and watched the movers drop her grand piano on her new husband's foot during the move. According to a "Life Change" perspective on stress, which of these 
events is not stressful? 
a. getting married 
b. moving into her dream home 
c. her husband's injury 
d. all of these events are stressful 

46. One explanation for why abused wives may be reluctant to abandon their abusive relationship is that 
a. they have learned to ignore the pain. 
b. they have developed learned helplessness. 
c. they have developed learned apathy. 
d. All of the above are true. 

47. Two neuroendocrine systems are responsible for the body's stress responses. What are they? 
a. sympathetic and adrenal-cortical 
b. parasympathetic and axon-dendritic 
c. hypothalamic and hippocampal 
d. sympathetic and cholingeric 

48. When compared with non-suffers, individuals with PTSD show differences in 
a. blood flow to certain areas of the brain. 
b. resting levels of adrenal hormones. 
c. reactivity to situations that remind them of their trauma. 
d. All of the above are true. 

49. Which behaviors would NOT be considered characteristic of Type A behavior? 
a. playing every game to win 
b. hurrying the speech of others 
c. procrastinating in doing school work 
d. constant feelings of self doubt 

50. In a study by Pennebaker, college students were encouraged to reveal personal traumas. What effect on their immune system? 
a. It increased immune functioning. 
b. It decreased immune functioning. 
c. It had little or no effect on immune functioning. 
d. It had a biphasic effect of increasing and then decreasing the immune response