Reference no: EM131340101

Assignment

Part 1

Q1. GSS enable meetings to take place at many locations simultaneously. a. true b. false

Q2. Distance learning supports continuous learning within organizations. a. true b. false

Q3. The standard GSS process begins with idea organization. a. true b. false

Q4. The most common way to deploy a GSS today is through the use of a decision room. a. true b. false

Q5. Organizations use online training to reduce training costs. a. true b. false

Q6. The standard GSS process ends with idea generation. a. true b. false

Q7. Distance learning can be utilized 24/7. a. true b. false

Q8. Which of the following is a groupwork process? a. Delphi Method b. Flannery Method c. Nominal Group Technique d. Delphi Method and Flannery Method e. Delphi Method and Nominal Group Technique

Q9. Creativity can be defined as either a trait or an achievement. a. true b. false

Q10. Distance learning is a fairly new phenomenon, having been first developed in the 1990s. a. true b. false

Q11. The most common way to deploy a GSS today is through the use of Web technologies. a. true b. false

Q12. Personality influences creativity. a. true b. false

Q13. The acronym CSCW stands for computer-supported communication in work. a. true b. false

Q14. The Internet is the only way to deliver distance learning today. a. true b. false

Q15. Distance learning is considered a form of collaborative computing. a. true b. false

Q16. Groupware are computerized tools designed to provide group support. a. true b. false

Q17. ERP is designed to control all major business processes with a single software architecture. a. true b. false

Q18. Supply chain management begins with raw material and ends with finished goods to the end customers. a. true b. false

Q19. Which of the following capabilities best differentiates EIS from DSS? a. What-if b. Modeling c. Communication d. Graphics e. User interface

Q20. The terms executive information systems and executive support systems are used interchangeably. a. true b. false

Q21. PLM systems and BPM systems are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false

Q22. Enterprise information systems are designed to support top management and middle management. a. true b. false

Q23. Exception reporting focuses on deviations from predefined standards. a. true b. false

Q24. Another term for enterprise portal is corporate portal. a. true b. false

Q25. Though ERP is transaction-based it can provide information for high-level decision-making in an organization. a. true b. false

Q26. CRM systems are batch applications designed to operate at low peak times. a. true b. false

Q27. The flow of materials from its sources to a company, and then within a company is referred to as its demand chain. a. true b. false

Q28. An enterprise portal integrates all external applications. a. true b. false

Q29. It is possible to integrate CRM systems with other enterprise information systems in an organization. a. true b. false

Q30. Soft information is a term used to describe objective information that is non-financial. a. true b. false

Q31. Enterprise information systems and executive information systems are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false

Q32. Enterprise portals utilize Web technology. a. true b. false

Q33. Learning can be passive, active, or intermediate. a. true b. false

Q34. Explicit knowledge is objective. a. true b. false

Q35. The earliest knowledge management systems were best practices repositories. a. true b. false

Q36. Explicit knowledge is easy to capture and document. a. true b. false

Q37. Knowledge management can be performed using document management. a. true b. false

Q38. Which of the following is easier to capture and disseminate? a. Tacit knowledge b. Explicit knowledge c. Both tacit and explicit knowledge d. Neither tacit or explicit knowledge e. Organizational memory

Q39. COPs can impact organizational culture changes. a. true b. false

Q40. Intellectual capital is a synonym for knowledge. a. true b. false

Q41. It is easy to measure the value of a knowledge management system. a. true b. false

Q42. Determining the value of an organization's intellectual assets is relatively easy. a. true b. false

Q43. Socialization refers to converting tacit knowledge to explicit knowledge. a. true b. false

Q44. Tacit knowledge is hard to document. a. true b. false

Q45. Explicit knowledge is hard to document. a. true b. false

Q46. Knowledge management sometimes makes use of artificial intelligence technologies. a. true b. false

Q47. Knowledge management can only be developed utilizing a practice approach. a. true b. false

Q48. Organizational culture can impact profitability. a. true b. false

Q49. A knowledge repository is a collection of internal and external knowledge. a. true b. false

Q50. Tacit knowledge has been called sticky knowledge. a. true b. false

Part 2

Q1. A distinguishing feature of an expert system is that it involves knowledge processing. a. true b. false

Q2. The primary objective of AI is to build computer systems that perform tasks that can be characterized as intelligent. a. true b. false

Q3. Inferencing in AI is done from: a. algorithms. b. facts, rules and heuristics. c. cognitive subsystems. d. long-term memory. e. short-term memory.

Q4. The inference engine performs the reasoning in an expert system. a. true b. false

Q5. Genetic algorithms and intelligent agents are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false

Q6. AI is behavior by a machine that if performed by a human would be deemed intelligent. a. true b. false

Q7. Most expert systems are limited to a narrow domain. a. true b. false

Q8. Knowledge, rather than data or information, is a key concept of AI. a. true b. false

Q9. Expert systems are called expert because they require a domain expert. a. true b. false

Q10. Backward chaining looks at the IF part of a rule first, then evaluates its result. a. true b. false

Q11. Voice recognition requires the use of artificial intelligence. a. true b. false

Q12. Expert systems typically deal with qualitative data easily. a. true b. false

Q13. Knowledge transfer from the expert to the expert system is subject to perceptual biases. a. true b. false

Q14. Most of the knowledge within an organization is contained with a few experts. a. true b. false

Q15. The knowledge base of an expert system is the same as a knowledge repository in a knowledge management system. a. true b. false

Q16. One generic category of expert systems is operations. a. true b. false

Q17. If final average > 93 then your grade is an A; is an example of a declarative rule. a. true b. false

Q18. Protocol tracking is a technique used to track the reasoning process of an expert. a. true b. false

Q19. There is a relationship between Mid-East oil production and the price of gasoline is an example of declarative knowledge. a. true b. false

Q20. RGA is most effective where the importance of attributes affecting a decision is unknown. a. true b. false

Q21. Procedural knowledge are a series of statements of facts. a. true b. false

Q22. Surface knowledge deals with specific situations. a. true b. false

Q23. Knowledge acquisition is always acquired through structured interviews. a. true b. false

Q24. Validation of the knowledge base is the exclusive responsibility of the knowledge engineer. a. true b. false

Q25. The personality of a knowledge engineer can have a direct influence on experts who are contributing to a knowledge base. a. true b. false

Q26. It is possible to observe experts in action, because they really like to be observed. a. true b. false

Q27. Shallow knowledge considers the internal and causal structure of the knowledge. a. true b. false

Q28. For knowledge to be considered valid it must be documented. a. true b. false

Q29. Acquiring knowledge is easy; managing knowledge is difficult. a. true b. false

Q30. Knowledge stored by human experts is typically structured. a. true b. false

Q31. Knowledge engineering typically involves acquiring knowledge from experts. a. true b. false

Q32. The Web has yet to make an impact on expert systems. a. true b. false

Q33. One of the advantages of the case-based reasoning approach is that learning can occur from failures as well as successes. a. true b. false

Q34. Learning rate and momentum are adjusted when training a back propagation neural network. a. true b. false

Q35. Modification rules determine the scope of change when using an historical case to evaluate a new problem. a. true b. false

Q36. Fuzzy logic has a consistent set of mathematical and membership operations. a. true b. false

Q37. Machine learning describes how a computer system learns from experience. a. true b. false

Q38. Machine learning and knowledge acquisition are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false

Q39. Fuzzy logic is designed primarily to handle structured problems that are repetitive in nature. a. true b. false

Q40. The primary knowledge element in case-based reasoning is the rule base. a. true b. false

Q41. Machine learning utilizes historical cases. a. true b. false

Q42. Most complex neural networks require virtually no hidden layers, relying instead on a large number of input and output layers. a. true b. false

Q43. Machine learning is used in knowledge acquisition, inferencing, and problem solving. a. true b. false

Q44. Case-based reasoning is appropriate when the problem domain is already precedent based. a. true b. false

Q45. Some neural network learning methods involve computing errors between known outputs and computed outputs and propagating the corrections forward through the network. a. true b. false

Q46. Machine learning is considered an artificial intelligence method. a. true b. false

Q47. A recurrent layer is one in which activity must go through the network more than once. a. true b. false

Q48. Case-based reasoning relies on indexing new events for subsequent usage. a. true b. false

Q49. Inductive learning allows the computer to use historical cases to solve new problems. a. true b. false

Q50. Neural systems are comprised of processing elements called artificial neuritis. a. true b. false