Reference no: EM131221936

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. One of the advantages of the corporate form of organization is that it avoids double taxation.
b. It is easier to transfer one's ownership interest in a partnership than in a corporation.
c. One of the disadvantages of a sole proprietorship is that the proprietor is exposed to unlimited liability.
d. One of the advantages of a corporation from a social standpoint is that every stockholder has equal voting rights, i.e., "one person, one vote."
e. Corporations of all types are subject to the corporate income tax.

2) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Corporations generally face fewer regulations than sole proprietorships.
b. Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability.
c. It is usually easier to transfer ownership in a corporation than in a partnership.
d. Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability, but this factor is offset by the tax advantages of incorporation.
e. There is a tax disadvantage to incorporation, and there is no way any corporation can escape this disadvantage, even if it is very small.

3) Which of the following could explain why a business might choose to operate as a corporation rather than as a sole proprietorship or a partnership?
a. Corporations generally face fewer regulations.
b. Less of a corporation's income is generally subject to federal taxes.
c. Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability, but this factor is offset by the tax advantages of incorporation.
d. Corporate investors are exposed to unlimited liability.
e. Corporations generally find it easier to raise large amounts of capital.

4) The primary operating goal of a publicly-owned firm interested in serving its stockholders should be to
a. Maximize its expected total corporate income.
b. Maximize its expected EPS.
c. Minimize the chances of losses.
d. Maximize the stock price per share over the long run, which is the stock's intrinsic value.
e. Maximize the stock price on a specific target date.

5) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Compensating managers with stock options can do nothing to help eliminate potential conflicts between stockholders and managers.
b. Restrictions can be included in credit agreements, but these restrictions can do nothing to protect bondholders from conflicts of interest between them and the firm's managers and stockholders.
c. The threat of takeovers reduces conflict of interest problems, but only between bondholders and stockholders.
d. Compensating managers with stock options can help reduce conflicts of interest between stockholders and managers, but if the options are all exercisable on a specific date in the near future, this can motivate managers to do something other than try to maximize the stock's intrinsic value.
e. Conflicts would not exist if the Security and Exchange Commission were abolished.

6) Which of the following statements would most people in business agree with?
a. A corporation's short-run profits will almost always increase if the firm takes actions that the government has determined are in the best interests of the nation.
b. Firms and government agencies almost always agree with one another regarding the restrictions that should be placed on hiring and firing employees.
c. "Whistle blowers," because of the courage it takes to blow the whistle, are generally promoted more rapidly than other employees.
d. It is not useful for large corporations to develop a formal set of rules defining ethical and unethical behavior.
e. Although people's moral characters are probably developed before they are admitted to a business school, it is still useful for business schools to cover ethics, if only to give students an idea about the adverse consequences of unethical behavior to themselves, their firms, and the nation.

7) Which of the following mechanisms would be most likely to help motivate managers to act in the best interests of shareholders?
a. Decrease the use of restrictive covenants in bond agreements.
b. Take actions that reduce the possibility of a hostile takeover.
c. Elect a board of directors that allows managers greater freedom of action.
d. Increase the proportion of executive compensation that comes from stock options and reduce the proportion that is paid as cash salaries.
e. Eliminate a requirement that members of the board of directors have a substantial investment in the firm's stock.

8) Which of the following is a primary market transaction?
a. You sell 200 shares of IBM stock on the NYSE through your broker.
b. You buy 200 shares of IBM stock from your brother. The trade is not made through a broker--you just give him cash and he gives you the stock.
c. IBM issues 2,000,000 shares of new stock and sells them to the public through an investment banker.
d. One financial institution buys 200,000 shares of IBM stock from another institution. An investment banker arranges the transaction.
e. IBM sells 2,000,000 shares of treasury stock to its employees when they exercise options that were granted in prior years.

9) Money markets are markets for
a. Foreign currencies.
b. Consumer automobile loans.
c. Common stocks.
d. Long-term bonds.
e. Short-term debt securities such as Treasury bills and commercial paper.

10) You recently sold 200 shares of Disney stock, and the transfer was made through a broker. This is an example of:
a. A money market transaction.
b. A primary market transaction.
c. A secondary market transaction.
d. A futures market transaction.
e. An over-the-counter market transaction.

11) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Hedge funds are legal in Europe and Asia, but they are not permitted to operate in the United States.
b. Hedge funds are legal in the United States, but they are not permitted to operate in Europe or Asia.
c. Hedge funds have more in common with investment banks than with any other type of financial institution.
d. Hedge funds have more in common with commercial banks than with any other type of financial institution.
e. Hedge funds are not as highly regulated as most other types of financial institutions. The justification for this light regulation is that only "sophisticated" investors (i.e., those with high net worths and high incomes) are permitted to invest in these funds, and such investors supposedly can do any necessary "due diligence" on their own rather than have it done by the SEC or some other regulator.

12) Other things held constant, which of the following actions would increase the amount of cash on a company's balance sheet?
a. The company repurchases common stock.
b. The company pays a dividend.
c. The company issues new common stock.
d. The company gives customers more time to pay their bills.
e. The company purchases a new piece of equipment.

13) Which of the following items is NOT normally considered to be a current asset?
a. Accounts receivable.
b. Inventory.
c. Bonds.
d. Cash.
e. Short-term, highly-liquid, marketable securities.

14) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. The focal point of the income statement is the cash account, because that account cannot be manipulated by "accounting tricks."
b. The reported income of two otherwise identical firms cannot be manipulated by different accounting procedures provided the firms follow generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).
c. The reported income of two otherwise identical firms must be identical if the firms are publicly owned, provided they follow procedures that are permitted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).
d. If a firm follows generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), then its reported net income will be identical to its reported cash flow.
e. The income statement for a given year, say 2008, is designed to give us an idea of how much the firm earned during that year.

15) Which of the following statements is most correct?
a. Corporations are allowed to exclude 70% of their interest income from corporate taxes.
b. Corporations are allowed to exclude 70% of their dividend income from corporate taxes.
c. Individuals pay taxes on only 30% of the income realized from municipal bonds.
d. Individuals are allowed to exclude 70% of their interest income from their taxes.
e. Individuals are allowed to exclude 70% of their dividend income from their taxes

16) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Typically, a firm's DPS should exceed its EPS.
b. Typically, a firm's net income should exceed its EBIT.
c. If a firm is more profitable than average (e.g., Google), we would normally expect to see its stock price exceed its book value per share.
d. If a firm is more profitable than most other firms, we would normally expect to see its book value per share exceed its stock price, especially after several years of high inflation.
e. The more depreciation a firm has in a given year, the higher its EPS, other things held constant.

17) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Dividends are always paid by a corporation.
b. EBIT has already been taxed.
c. One way of using the excess cash is to pay the shareholders a dividend. Another way might be a firm buying its own stock back.
d. If a firm is more profitable than most other firms, we would normally expect to see its book value per share exceed its stock price, especially after several years of high inflation.
e. For profit firms write large checks for depreciation expense.

18) Analysts who follow Howe Industries recently noted that, relative to the previous year, the company's net cash provided from operations increased, yet cash as reported on the balance sheet decreased. Which of the following factors could explain this situation?
a. The company cut its dividend.
b. The company made large investments in fixed assets.
c. The company sold a division and received cash in return.
d. The company issued new common stock.
e. The company issued new long-term debt.

19) The Nantell Corporation just purchased an expensive piece of equipment. Assume that the firm planned to depreciate the equipment over 5 years on a straight-line basis, but Congress then passed a provision that requires the company to depreciate the equipment on a straight-line basis over 7 years. Other things held constant, which of the following will occur as a result of this Congressional action? Assume that the company uses the same depreciation method for tax and stockholder reporting purposes.
a. Nantell's taxable income will be lower.
b. Nantell's operating income (EBIT) will increase.
c. Nantell's cash position will improve (increase).
d. Nantell's reported net income for the year will be lower.
e. Nantell's tax liability for the year will be lower.

20). Considered alone, which of the following would increase a company's current ratio?
a. An increase in net fixed assets.
b. An increase in accrued liabilities.
c. An increase in notes payable.
d. An increase in accounts receivable.
e. An increase in accounts payable.

21). A firm wants to strengthen its financial position. Which of the following actions would increase its quick ratio?
a. Offer price reductions along with generous credit terms that would (1) enable the firm to sell some of its excess inventory and (2) lead to an increase in accounts receivable.
b. Issue new common stock and use the proceeds to increase inventories.
c. Speed up the collection of receivables and use the cash generated to increase inventories.
d. Use some of its cash to purchase additional inventories.
e. Issue new common stock and use the proceeds to acquire additional fixed assets.

22). You plan to analyze the value of a potential investment by calculating the sum of the present values of its expected cash flows. Which of the following would lower the calculated value of the investment?
a. The cash flows are in the form of a deferred annuity, and they total to $100,000. You learn that the annuity lasts for only 5 rather than 10 years, hence that each payment is for $20,000 rather than for $10,000.
b. The discount rateincreases.
c. The riskiness of the investment's cash flows decreases.
d. The total amount of cash flows remains the same, but more of the cash flows are received in the earlier years and less are received in the later years.
e. The discount rate decreases.

23). Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. The cash flows for an ordinary (or deferred) annuity all occur at the beginning of the periods.
b. If a series of unequal cash flows occurs at regular intervals, such as once a year, then the series is by definition an annuity.
c. The cash flows for an annuity due must all occur at the ends of the periods.
d. The cash flows for an annuity must all be equal, and they must occur at regular intervals, such as once a year or once a month.
e. If some cash flows occur at the beginning of the periods while others occur at the ends, then we have what the textbook defines as a variableannuity.

24). Your bank account pays an 8% nominal rate of interest. The interest is compounded quarterly. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. The periodic rate of interest is 2% and the effective rate of interest is 4%.
b. The periodic rate of interest is 8% and the effective rate of interest is greater than 8%.
c. The periodic rate of interest is 4% and the effective rate of interest is less than 8%.
d. The periodic rate of interest is 2% and the effective rate of interest is greater than 8%.
e. The periodic rate of interest is 8% and the effective rate of interest is also 8%.

25) A $50,000 loan is to be amortized over 7 years, with annual end-of-year payments. Which of these statements is CORRECT?
a. The annual payments would be larger if the interest rate were lower.
b. If the loan were amortized over 10 years rather than 7 years, and if the interest rate were the same in either case, the first payment would include more dollars of interest under the 7-year amortization plan.
c. The proportion of each payment that represents interest as opposed to repayment of principal would be lower if the interest rate were lower.
d. The last payment would have a higher proportion of interest than the first payment.
e. The proportion of interest versus principal repayment would be the same for each of the 7 payments.

26). Which of the following statements regarding a 15-year (180-month) $125,000, fixed-rate mortgage is CORRECT? (Ignore taxes and transactions costs.)
a. The remaining balance after three years will be $125,000 less one third of the interest paid during the first three years.
b. Because the outstanding balance declines over time, the monthly payments will also decline over time.
c. Interest payments on the mortgage will increase steadily over time, but the total amount of each payment will remain constant.
d. The proportion of the monthly payment that goes towards repayment of principal will be lower 10 years from now than it will be the first year.
e. The outstanding balance declines at a faster rate in the later years of the loan's life.

27). Which of the following investments would have the highest future value at the end of 10 years? Assume that the effective annual rate for all investments is the same and is greater than zero.
a. Investment A pays $250 at the beginning of every year for the next 10 years (a total of 10 payments).
b. Investment B pays $125 at the end of every 6-month period for the next 10 years (a total of 20 payments).
c. Investment C pays $125 at the beginning of every 6-month period for the next 10 years (a total of 20 payments).
d. Investment D pays $2,500 at the end of 10 years (just one payment).
e. Investment E pays $250 at the end of every year for the next 10 years (a total of 10 payments).

28). Which of the following investments would have the lowest present value? Assume that the effective annual rate for all investments is the same and is greater than zero.
a. Investment A pays $250 at the end of every year for the next 10 years (a total of 10 payments).
b. Investment B pays $125 at the end of every 6-month period for the next 10 years (a total of 20 payments).
c. Investment C pays $125 at the beginning of every 6-month period for the next 10 years (a total of 20 payments).
d. Investment D pays $2,500 at the end of 10 years (just one payment).
e. Investment E pays $250 at the beginning of every year for the next 10 years (a total of 10 payments).

29). Which of the following statements is CORRECT, assuming positive interest rates and holding other things constant?
a. The present value of a 5-year, $250 annuity due will be lower than the PV of a similar ordinary annuity.
b. A 30-year, $150,000 amortized mortgage will have larger monthly payments than an otherwise similar 20-year mortgage.
c. A bank loan's nominal interest rate will always be equal to or greater than its effective annual rate.
d. If an investment pays 10% interest, compounded quarterly, its effective annual rate will be greater than 10%.
e. Banks A and B offer the same nominal annual rate of interest, but A pays interest quarterly and B pays semiannually. Deposits in Bank B will provide the higher future value if you leave your funds on deposit.

30). Jose now has $500. How much would he have after 6 years if he leaves it invested at 5.5% with annual compounding?
a. $591.09
b. $622.20
c. $654.95
d. $689.42
e. $723.89

31) Last year Dania Corporation's sales were $525 million. If sales grow at 7.5% per year, how large (in millions) will they be 8 years later?
a. $845.03
b. $889.51
c. $936.33
d. $983.14
e. $1,032.30

32). Suppose the U.S. Treasury offers to sell you a bond for $747.25. No payments will be made until the bond matures 5 years from now, at which time it will be redeemed for $1,000. What interest rate would you earn if you bought this bond at the offer price?
a. 4.37%
b. 4.86%
c. 5.40%
d. 6.00%
e. 6.60%

33). Bob has $2,500 invested in a bank that pays 4% annually. How long will it take for his funds to double?
a. 14.39
b. 15.15
c. 15.95
d. 16.79
e. 17.67

34). You want to buy a new sports car 3 years from now, and you plan to save $4,200 per year, beginning one year from today. You will deposit your savings in an account that pays 5.2% interest. How much will you have just after you make the 3rd deposit, 3 years from now?
a. $11,973
b. $12,603
c. $13,267
d. $13,930
e. $14,626

35). What is the PV of an ordinary annuity with 10 payments of $2,700 if the appropriate interest rate is 5.5%?
a. $16,576
b. $17,449
c. $18,367
d. $19,334
e. $20,352

36). Your aunt is about to retire, and she wants to sell some of her stock and buy an annuity that will provide her with income of $50,000 per year for 30 years, beginning a year from today. The going rate on such annuities is 7.25%. How much would it cost her to buy such an annuity today?
a. $574,924
b. $605,183
c. $635,442
d. $667,214
e. $700,575

37). What's the future value of $1,500 after 5 years if the appropriate interest rate is 6%, compounded semiannually?
a. $1,819
b. $1,915
c. $2,016
d. $2,117
e. $2,223

38). What's the future value of $1,200 after 5 years if the appropriate interest rate is 6%, compounded monthly?
a. $1,537.69
b. $1,618.62
c. $1,699.55
d. $1,784.53
e. $1,873.76

39). Master Card and other credit card issuers must by law print the Annual Percentage Rate (APR) on their monthly statements. If the APR is stated to be 18.00%, with interest paid monthly, what is the card's EFF%?
a. 18.58%
b. 19.56%
c. 20.54%
d. 21.57%
e. 22.65%

40). Your sister turned 35 today, and she is planning to save $7,000 per year for retirement, with the first deposit to be made one year from today. She will invest in a mutual fund that's expected to provide a return of 7.5% per year. She plans to retire 30 years from today, when she turns 65, and she expects to live for 25 years after retirement, to age 90. Under these assumptions, how much can she spend each year after she retires? Her first withdrawal will be made at the end of her first retirement year.
a. $58,601
b. $61,686
c. $64,932
d. $68,179
e. $71,588

41). The real risk-free rate of interest is expected to remain constant at 3% for the foreseeable future. However, inflation is expected to increase steadily over the next 30 years, so the Treasury yield curve has an upward slope. Assume that the pure expectations theory holds. You are also considering two corporate bonds, one with a 5-year maturity and one with a 10-year maturity. Both have the same default and liquidity risks. Given these assumptions, which of these statements is CORRECT?
a. Since the pure expectations theory holds, the 10-year corporate bond must have the same yield as the 5-year corporate bond.
b. Since the pure expectations theory holds, all 5-year Treasury bonds must have higher yields than all 10-year Treasury bonds.
c. Since the pure expectations theory holds, all 10-year corporate bonds must have the same yield as 10-year Treasury bonds.
d. The 10-year Treasury bond must have a higher yield than the 5-year corporate bond.
e. The 10-year corporate bond must have a higher yield than the 5-year corporate bond.

42). Which of the following events would make it more likely that a company would call its outstanding callable bonds?
a. The company's bonds are downgraded.
b. Market interest rates rise sharply.
c. Market interest rates decline sharply.
d. The company's financial situation deteriorates significantly.
e. Inflation increases significantly.

43). Ryngaert Inc. recently issued noncallable bonds that mature in 15 years. They have a par value of $1,000 and an annual coupon of 5.7%. If the current market interest rate is 7.0%, at what price should the bonds sell?
a. $817.12
b. $838.07
c. $859.56
d. $881.60
e. $903.64

44). Malko Enterprises' bonds currently sell for $1,050. They have a 6-year maturity, an annual coupon of $75, and a par value of $1,000. What is their current yield?
a. 7.14%
b. 7.50%
c. 7.88%
d. 8.27%
e. 8.68%

45). Assume that you are considering the purchase of a 20-year, noncallable bond with an annual coupon rate of 9.5%. The bond has a face value of $1,000, and it makes semiannual interest payments. If you require an 8.4% nominal yield to maturity on this investment, what is the maximum price you should be willing to pay for the bond?
a. $1,105.69
b. $1,133.34
c. $1,161.67
d. $1,190.71
e. $1,220.48

46). A highly risk-averse investor is considering adding one additional stock to a 3-stock portfolio, to form a 4-stock portfolio. The three stocks currently held all have b = 1.0, and they are perfectly positively correlated with the market. Potential new Stocks A and B both have expected returns of 15%, are in equilibrium, and are equally correlated with the market, with r = 0.75. However, Stock A's standard deviation of returns is 12% versus 8% for Stock B. Which stock should this investor add to his or her portfolio, or does the choice not matter?
a. Either A or B, i.e., the investor should be indifferent between the two.
b. Stock A.
c. Stock B.
d. Neither A nor B, as neither has a return sufficient to compensate for risk.
e. Add A, since its beta must be lower.

47). Stock A's beta is 1.5 and Stock B's beta is 0.5. Which of the following statements must be true about these securities? (Assume market equilibrium.)
a. When held in isolation, Stock A has more risk than Stock B.
b. Stock B must be a more desirable addition to a portfolio than A.
c. Stock A must be a more desirable addition to a portfolio than B.
d. The expected return on Stock A should be greater than that on B.
e. The expected return on Stock B should be greater than that on A.

48). Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. The beta of a portfolio of stocks is always smaller than the betas of any of the individual stocks.
b. If you found a stock with a zero historical beta and held it as the only stock in your portfolio, you would by definition have a riskless portfolio.
c. The beta coefficient of a stock is normally found by regressing past returns on a stock against past market returns. One could also construct a scatter diagram of returns on the stock versus those on the market, estimate the slope of the line of best fit, and use it as beta. However, this historical beta may differ from the beta that exists in the future.
d. The beta of a portfolio of stocks is always larger than the betas of any of the individual stocks.
e. It is theoretically possible for a stock to have a beta of 1.0. If a stock did have a beta of 1.0, then, at least in theory, its required rate of return would be equal to the risk-free (default-free) rate of return, rRF.

49). Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. An investor can eliminate virtually all market risk if he or she holds a very large and well diversified portfolio of stocks.
b. The higher the correlation between the stocks in a portfolio, the lower the risk inherent in the portfolio.
c. It is impossible to have a situation where the market risk of a single stock is less than that of a portfolio that includes the stock.
d. Once a portfolio has about 40 stocks, adding additional stocks will not reduce its risk by even a small amount.
e. An investor can eliminate virtually all diversifiable risk if he or she holds a very large, well diversified portfolio of stocks.

50). Tom O'Brien has a 2-stock portfolio with a total value of $100,000. $37,500is invested in Stock A with a beta of 0.75 and the remainder is invested in Stock B with a beta of 1.42. What is his portfolio's beta?
a. 1.17
b. 1.23
c. 1.29
d. 1.35
e. 1.42