Reference no: EM13311174

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A _____ is everything, both favorable and unfavorable, that a person receives in an exchange. It can be tangible, intangible, a service, an idea, or a combination of these things. a. brand equity b. quality c. warranty d. transaction e. product ____ 2. The _____ is the starting point in creating a marketing mix. a. price b. product c. distribution channel d. promotional media e. production line ____ 3. Why is creation of a product the starting point for the marketing mix? a. The production department must know what to produce first. b. Production strategy is the first of the four Ps listed in the marketing mix. c. Determination of the price, promotional campaign, and distribution network cannot begin until the product has been specified. d. Product development takes the longest amount of time to complete. e. Actually, the product does not have to be the starting point––promotional strategies are often the starting point. ____ 4. Which of the following is NOT an example of a product’s tangible feature? a. Brand equity b. Packaging c. Color d. Options e. Size ____ 5. When a greenhouse plant grower sells plants to nursery retailers, the grower is selling _____ products. a. specialty b. consumer c. convenience d. business e. unsought ____ 6. _____ products are purchased with little shopping effort. These products typically are purchased regularly, usually with little planning, and require wide distribution. a. Convenience b. Specialty c. Branded shopping d. Unbranded shopping e. Generic ____ 7. Kathy is driving Chaz, her young son, home from soccer practice when Chaz says, “Mom, I’m thirsty.” Kathy immediately pulls the car into the nearest gas station and buys Chaz a Coke. For Kathy, the Coke is best described as an example of buying a _____ product. a. homogeneous shopping b. heterogeneous shopping c. convenience d. specialty e. component ____ 8. Which of the following is the best example of a convenience product? a. Concert tickets b. Chewing gum c. Jeans d. Chemical for the swimming pool e. A birthday present ____ 9. Which type of consumer product requires comparison shopping because it is usually more expensive than a convenience product and is found in fewer stores? a. An unsought product b. A secondary product c. A unique product d. A shopping product e. A selective product ____ 10. Harrison wanted a gas water heater. He watched newspaper ads until he found one on sale. For Harrison, the water heater is a(n) _____ product. a. shopping b. convenience c. component d. unsought e. specialty ____ 11. The two types of shopping products are: a. unsought and convenience b. generic and family c. exclusive and intensive d. heterogeneous and homogeneous e. consumer and business ____ 12. Which of the following is the best example of a shopping product for most consumers? a. Washing detergent b. Crackers c. A soft drink d. A digital camera e. A magazine ____ 13. Andrea needs to find a kennel for boarding her son’s dogs. There are several different kennels in her community, and Andrea believes all of them to be basically alike. The only feature she is genuinely concerned about is low price. For Andrea, the kennel for boarding dogs would be classified as a(n) _____ product. a. specialty b. unsought c. heterogeneous shopping d. basic convenience e. homogeneous shopping ____ 14. Which of the following products is most likely to be considered an example of a heterogeneous shopping product? a. An apartment b. Laundry detergent c. A blender d. A package of pens e. Dog food ____ 15. Bang & Olufsen make some of the best sound systems in the world. After years of development, Bang & Olufsen recently released its new BeoLab 5 speakers. For audiophiles who demand the best in audio equipment, the $19,950 Bang & Olufsen BeoLab 5 speakers represent an example of a(n) _____ product. a. heterogeneous shopping b. specialty c. homogeneous shopping d. convenience e. exclusive ____ 16. Janet will only purchase Williams-Sonoma products for her kitchen. The products are expensive, but Janet feels they have the highest quality and will last a very long time. These products represent _____ products. a. heterogeneous shopping b. specialty c. homogeneous shopping d. convenience e. business ____ 17. Evan Zimmermann loves watches. He collects vintage Rolex sport models made between 1950 and 1960. He paid $1,500 for his first watch in 2000. Now the watch is worth $15,000. For Evan, the vintage watches are an example of a(n) _____ product. a. specialty b. consumer c. convenience d. business e. unsought ____ 18. _____ products are products that are not known about or not actively searched for by consumers. These products require aggressive personal selling and highly persuasive advertising. a. Hidden b. Specialty c. Equity d. Unsought e. Shopping ____ 19. Unsought products typically are products that: a. consumers purchase when they see them in a convenient location b. consumers definitely don’t want c. only require reminder advertising to be successful d. require little or no decision making by the buyer e. consumers don’t know about or don’t actively look for ____ 20. Alice is a very busy person, and she hates to spend her time doing yard work. She really likes the idea of a synthetic lawn. However, she has never pursued the idea, as she has two dogs in her backyard. Alice doesn’t know that several manufactures make synthetic grass with an antibacterial agent to minimize odors for pet owners. For Alice, the dog-friendly synthetic lawns are a(n) _____ product because she doesn’t know the product exists. a. heterogeneous shopping b. specialty c. unsought d. convenience e. exclusive ____ 21. In general, most consumers don’t spend a lot of time thinking about their funeral. So some funeral homes try to get them to think about their loved ones by advertising preplanned funerals. This is an attempt to get people to think about a product that most consumers do not actively seek. In other words, preplanned funerals are a(n) _____ product. a. heterogeneous shopping b. specialty c. unsought d. business e. consumer ____ 22. A product line is a group of products that are closely related because the: a. products share the same product managers b. products all function in a similar manner and provide similar benefits c. same company has developed the idea for each product d. products are all sold under the same brand name e. products are all priced about the same ____ 23. Most people recognize Campbell’s as a brand of soup, but Campbell’s also manufactures Pace Picante Sauce, Pepperidge Farms products, Prego pasta sauces, Swanson Broth, and V8 juice. All these products are part of Campbell’s: a. marketing equity b. product line c. product mix d. line depth e. product modification ____ 24. Procter & Gamble manufactures Tide laundry detergent, the best-selling brand in the United States. But is also offers Tide to Go, which is a stick product consumers can use to clean a spot on their clothing between washings, and small travel packets of Tide detergent. These other products are part of Tide’s product line: a. width b. breadth c. mix d. depth e. synergy ____ 25. All of the following are benefits from organizing related items into product lines EXCEPT: a. package uniformity b. varying quality c. advertising economies d. efficient sales and distribution e. standardized components ____ 26. Which of the following is an example of a product modification? a. Lowering the price of textbooks b. Dropping a product from the product line c. Changing the color of a laundry detergent d. Changing the amount of management time spent overseeing production e. Increasing the number of distribution outlets ____ 27. Apple recently updated its iPod Touch product, expanding its storage from 8 GB to 16 GB. Enlarging the iPod Touch’s storage capacity is an example of a: a. product modification b. brand mix extension c. product diversification d. brand repositioning e. demographic modification ____ 28. When Honda automobiles first entered the U.S. market, they were small and not very durable. However, over the years, Honda has modified its automobiles to be one of the most dependable cars on the market. This change in dependability and durability is representative of which type of product modification? a. Style b. Planned obsolescence c. Functional d. Quality extension e. Quality ____ 29. When Proctor & Gamble removed potentially dangerous dyes and chemicals from its Tide detergent product and introduced Tide Free, the company was making a: a. product line contraction b. quality modification c. aesthetics modification d. obsolescence factor e. functional modification ____ 30. Over the years Cadillac has become to be thought of as “your grandparent’s car.” The new Cadillac ads showing a beautiful young woman driving a Cadillac along with the statement, “When you turn your car on, does it turn you on?” This is an example of marketing designed to help _____ Cadillac as a car for today’s younger driver. a. diversify b. reposition c. develop d. expand e. display ____ 31. Adding additional products to an existing product line in order to compete more broadly in the industry is referred to as: a. product line extension b. product modification c. planned obsolescence d. repositioning e. cannibalization ____ 32. At one point, Heinz made ketchup in multiple colors, including red, green, purple, pink, orange, and teal. While they were popular for a few years, consumers stopped buying the unusual colors and Heinz has dropped back to just making red ketchup. This is an example of the implementation of a _____ strategy. a. repositioning b. cannibalization c. product line extension d. product line contraction e. divestment ____ 33. A _____ is the part of the brand that can be spoken. a. brand equity b. service mark c. trademark d. brand name e. certification mark ____ 34. The value of company and brand names is referred to as: a. brand equity b. brand loyalty c. brand power d. brand equivalency e. brand strength ____ 35. Rexona, marketed by Unilever (a Dutch company), is the world’s number one deodorant brand. The brand is a leader in Europe, South America, Asia, Africa, and the Middle East. Rexona is an example of a: a. master brand b. global brand c. cannibalized brand d. standard brand e. family brand ____ 36. A consumer who consistently and repeatedly purchases the same brand is said to have: a. brand loyalty b. product equity c. product loyalty d. product repetition e. store loyalty ____ 37. Brand loyalty can: a. increase product diffusion b. encourage competition c. shorten the amount of time a product spends in the maturity stage d. help ensure repeat sales e. sell a bad product ____ 38. Campbell’s, Nature Valley, Honda, and Lipton products are examples of _____ brands because of who owns them. a. manufacturers’ b. private c. family d. individual e. master ____ 39. A(n) _____ brand is one owned by the wholesaler or retailer. a. intermediate b. private c. generic d. corporate e. primary ____ 40. Which of the following statements describes an advantage to retailers associated with developing their own brands? a. Dealers must market the brand, thus cutting into the gross margin. b. Higher profit margins are available on private brands. c. Private brands, particularly those owned by discounters, are perceived to be of a higher quality. d. Dealers often buy in large quantities and thus always have a ready supply. e. Private brands are normally delivered more promptly by the manufacturer. ____ 41. Heinz is a leading global food manufacturer. It manufactures and markets Farleys (baby food), Jack Daniel’s sauces, and Weight Watcher’s diet/slimming meals and supplements. The use of these brand names instead of the Heinz name is an example of a(n) _____ branding strategy. a. individual b. synergistic c. umbrella d. family e. piggyback ____ 42. When a company markets several different products under the same brand name, it is referred to as a(n) _____ brand. a. family b. generic c. bargain d. dealer e. umbrella ____ 43. Which of the following entails placing two or more brand names on a product or its package? a. Family branding b. Private branding c. Dual-code branding d. Co-branding e. Complementary branding ____ 44. Maureen purchased a package of Bounce fabric sheets with Febreeze citrus scent. Since both brands were prominently listed on the package, this would be an example of: a. equity branding b. co-branding c. conjunctive branding d. private branding e. complementary branding ____ 45. Jennifer purchased Cascade 2in1 ActionPacs for her dishwasher. The packaging said the product combines the scrubbing power of Cascade with the grease-fighting power of Dawn dishwashing detergent. What type of co-branding does this product represent? a. Cooperative b. Complementary c. Piggyback d. Ingredient e. Synergistic ____ 46. When a product name becomes generic: a. the firm must use black-and-white packaging b. competitors are prohibited by law from using the trademark c. the price will have to drop to appeal to lower-income consumers d. the product name is no longer recognized as the exclusive property of one firm e. a firm can reapply for exclusive trademark protection at the U.S. Patent Office ____ 47. Labeling that is designed to help consumers make proper product selections and lower their cognitive dissonance after the purchase is referred to as: a. informational labeling b. persuasive labeling c. cognitive labeling d. rational labeling e. restrictive labeling ____ 48. Three aspects of packaging that are especially important in international marketing are labeling, aesthetics, and: a. price b. length of distribution channel c. counterfeiting potential d. warranties e. climate considerations ____ 49. The statement on a toothpaste box that brushing twice a day with the paste will remove 90 percent of all tartar from the user’s teeth is an example of a(n): a. implied warranty b. functional label c. UPC disclaimer d. express warranty e. universal warranty ____ 50. Shane had every reason to believe that the antacid he purchased would relieve his stomach problems if he followed the directions on the box. This is an example of a(n): a. implied warranty b. functional label c. persuasive label d. express warranty e. universal warranty ____ 51. Under the _____, all sales have an implied warranty. a. Label Law b. Lanham Act c. Bill of Rights d. Good Housekeeping Seal e. Uniform Commercial Code Alberto Culver Company The Alberto Culver Company manufactures a wide variety of products from hairspray to seasonings. A large number of these products are intended for personal use. The company is divided into three key divisions: toiletries, household, and professional. The toiletries division sells hair-care brands such as Alberto VO5, Alberto, and Bold Hold. Additionally, this division handles the FDS line of feminine deodorant products. The household division sells brands such as Mrs. Dash seasonings, Papa Dash salt substitute, Baker’s Joy, Sugar Twin, and Static Guard. The professional division sells brands such as Tresemme, TCB, and Indola. Each of the brands listed contains many individual products with varying formulations, such as the Alberto styling products, which include mousse, gel, spritz, spray-in conditioner, and hairspray. ____ 52. Refer to Alberto Culver Company. Based on their intended use, Alberto Culver’s toiletries division products could best be classified as _____ products. a. industrial b. consumer c. business d. convenience e. unsought ____ 53. Refer to Alberto Culver Company. All the products that Alberto Culver sells in each of its three divisions are the company’s product: a. item b. depth c. width d. mix e. marketing consistency ____ 54. Refer to Alberto Culver Company. The toiletries, household, and professional divisions compose Alberto Culver’s product mix: a. depth b. length c. width d. reliability e. consistency ____ 55. Refer to Alberto Culver Company. If a marketer looks only at the toiletries division and notes the brands and items within only that division, he or she is analyzing the _____ of the product line. a. width b. length c. depth d. levels e. consistency ____ 56. Refer to Alberto Culver Company. Why would the Alberto Culver Company be interested in increasing its product depth? a. To even out seasonal sales patterns b. To attract buyers with different preferences c. To increase sales and profits by further segmenting the market d. To capitalize on economies of scale in marketing e. To do all of these things Choice Homes, Inc. Choice Homes, Inc., based in Texas, built its reputation by building high-quality new homes, often at prices less than “used” ones. Choice Homes used mass purchasing power, innovative high-tech communications among employees to coordinate the building process, and other entrepreneurial strategies to hold costs down. Its homes are primarily targeted at first-time homeowners-to-be in an effort to get people out of apartments so they can experience the “American Dream” of home ownership for the same price as rent. Choice Homes later developed the “Choice Classic” brand name for higher-end homes targeted at wealthier dual-income couples. The Choice Classic name was designed to capitalize on the reputation of Choice Homes, especially for current Choice home owners who are ready to “move up” to a larger home. Recently, Choice Homes started a third line of homes called “Reflections,” which are expensive, custom-designed homes located in exclusive, prestigious neighborhoods. ____ 57. Refer to Choice Homes, Inc. The three different brands of homes (Choice, Choice Classic, and Reflections) represent the firm’s: a. line portfolio b. mix depth c. line breadth d. product line e. product itemization ____ 58. Refer to Choice Homes, Inc. In a recent survey, Choice Homes’ customers indicated that they thought their homes were of high quality, made lots of referrals to friends, and planned to buy a Choice Classic or Reflections home in the future. The customers’ reactions indicate that Choice Homes has achieved: a. generic status b. private brand status c. brand equity d. superficial skills e. brand superiority Hardie Siding Products James Hardie began selling fiber cement siding products in the United States in 1989 to leading builders, lumberyards, and home improvement centers. Even though ads guaranteed the product would not rot or crack for 50 years, many builders hated the product. It was heavy to install, and it showed every flaw in a bad framing job. In 1997, Hardie decided to run ads in traditional lifestyle magazines and emphasize the emotional appeal of houses made with strong, weather-resistant materials. Soon consumers began asking their builders or remodelers to use the product. Trade ads were used to explain how builders could take advantage of the interest created by the ads in lifestyle magazines. By 2000, the HardiePlank was the number one brand of siding in North America. James Hardie is now the third most recognized brand of building material in the world. ____ 59. Refer to Hardie Siding Products. HardiePlank siding is an example of a product: a. line b. mix c. reference point d. item e. standardization ____ 60. Refer to Hardie Siding Products. By changing the focus of its promotion from the building industry to home owners who saw their homes as sources of security, warmth, and stability, Hardie Siding used a _____ strategy. a. market penetration b. repositioning c. product penetration d. harvesting e. divestment ____ 61. Refer to Hardie Siding Products. Since all of the siding products sold by Hardie are sold under the James Hardie brand name, it is clear that the company uses a _____ strategy. a. family branding b. private branding c. business branding d. co-branding e. repositioning ____ 62. Refer to Hardie Siding Products. What type of warranty is James Hardie offering in its promotions? a. Implied b. Responsive c. Intangible d. Express e. Valid Nestlé When consumers think of Nestlé, they probably think of chocolate. Historically, though, Nestlé’s confectionary business is its weakest area. Based in Switzerland, it is the world’s largest food company, with a brand arsenal of Nescafé, Jenny Craig, Perrier, Purina, and PowerBar, just to name a few of its 30 product lines. Nestlé is hoping to become the “world’s leading health, nutrition, and wellness firm” by spending billions of dollars on research and development of functional foods––foods that have pharmaceutical-like capabilities to enhance energy and heart, bone, gut, and other health. Nestlé wants consumers to see chocolate as a pharmaceutical product rather than just a treat. Part of this new focus includes streamlining the product mix by selling underperforming items or lines that do not fit its new direction. Critics claim that this new focus could hurt the company’s existing brands if the new products fail. Additionally, it may be an uphill battle convincing consumers that a company known for indulgence is now a wellness company. ____ 63. Refer to Nestlé. After developing these new, functional products, Nestlé will have to change consumers’ perceptions of its brands because it is known for indulgence, not wellness. Nestlé will have to _____ itself. a. reinvent b. reposition c. rename d. modify e. standardize ____ 64. Refer to Nestlé. What adjustment to its product mix is Nestlé doing when it sells underperforming items? a. Product line extension b. Product line contraction c. Product pruning d. Product line retraction e. Functional modification ____ 65. Refer to Nestlé. One new product Nestlé intends to introduce includes fiber added to chocolate. The packages will include the fact that each chocolate bar contains 5 grams of fiber and the various health benefits of including more fiber in one’s diet. Which form of labeling will this perform? a. Persuasive b. Informational c. Regulatory d. Competitive e. Perceptive ____ 66. New-to-the-world products, where the product category itself is new, are also called: a. discontinuous innovations b. moderate innovations c. slow-diffusing products d. venture products e. creative offerings ____ 67. Sony has developed a wireless speaker that sits unobtrusively on a desktop. The tiny yet strong twin speakers use Bluetooth to stream music directly from a PC or MP3 player. This small Sony wireless speaker, which is radically different from anything currently on the market, would be classified as a(n): a. discontinuous innovation b. slow-diffusing product c. episodic innovation d. venture product e. sporadic innovation ____ 68. Which of the following would be considered a new product? a. A new product line b. A new-to-the-world product c. An addition to an existing product line d. An improvement or revision of an existing product e. All of these choices ____ 69. When Glade began marketing a clean linen–scented air spray, this represented which new product category? a. Repositioning strategy b. New product line c. Addition to existing product line d. Discontinuous innovation e. Revision of existing products ____ 70. Oakley, a manufacturer of protective eyewear for various kinds of sports, has introduced sunglasses that play music. The glasses weigh just a few ounces and can hold up to 120 songs. These sunglasses would be an example of a(n): a. repositioning strategy b. new product line c. addition to existing product line d. discontinuous innovation e. revision of existing products ____ 71. Victorinex has long manufactured Swiss Army knives and developed a line of upscale Swiss Army watches. The Swiss Army brand gave the company credibility over other watch manufacturers and allowed the company to continue targeting sports-minded males between the ages of 18 and 35 years. Victorinex used which strategy to create new products? a. New-to-the-world product b. New product line c. Repositioned product d. Addition to a current product line e. Discontinuous innovation ____ 72. _____ occurs when an existing product is targeted toward new market segments. It is another type of new-product development because the product is new to that segment. a. Brainstorming b. Diffusing c. Repositioning d. Screening e. Reciprocity ____ 73. Companies that are most likely to succeed in the development and introduction of new products typically are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. establish an environment conducive to achieving new-product objectives b. make the long-term commitment needed to support innovation and new-product development c. capitalize on experience to achieve and maintain competitive advantage d. use a company-specific approach, driven by corporate objectives and strategies, with a well-defined new-product strategy at its core e. introduce ten new products every year ____ 74. The first stage of the new-product development process is: a. screening and concept testing b. establishing the new-product strategy c. exploring opportunities d. developing a business analysis e. the building of a prototype ____ 75. A new-product strategy: a. links the new-product development process with the objectives of the marketing department, the business unit, and the corporation b. is part of an organization’s overall marketing strategy c. specifies the roles new products play in the organization’s overall plans d. describes the characteristics of products the organization wants to offer and the markets it wants to serve e. is accurately described by all of these ____ 76. Which of the following is the LEAST likely source for new-product ideas? a. A company’s distributors b. Its customers c. Its employees d. Its financial lenders e. Its competitors ____ 77. A manufacturer of office furnishings is finding it difficult to compete with cheaper imported merchandise. Which of the following is a potential source of new-product ideas that would allow it to compete more effectively? a. Current retailers who carry the manufacturer’s equipment b. Its foreign competitors c. The company’s employees d. Customers who have requested its catalogs e. All of these ____ 78. The process of converting applications for new technologies into marketable products is called: a. basic research b. product modification c. marketing development d. product development e. correlation analysis ____ 79. _____ is a process where a group thinks of as many ways to vary a product or solve a problem as possible without considering the practicality of the ideas. a. New-product brain dumping b. Screening c. A focus group interview d. Brainstorming e. Diffusion ____ 80. Mosaic Labs has developed a chemical compound that prevents mildew in even the most humid climates. The week after the compound was invented, a group of the firm’s employees got together and listed ways the product might be used. This is an example of: a. focusing grouping b. brainstorming c. concept testing d. venture group activities e. screening ____ 81. The same manufacturer produces Hanes, Playtex, and Bali clothing for women. This manufacturer assembled a group of nine regular customers and asked them to discuss what they like and do not like about its current product line for full-figured women and to suggest new-product ideas, such as jewelry, wide shoes, and belts. The manufacturer used a research technique called a: a. focus group b. brainstorming session c. buying center d. product-review committee e. venture team ____ 82. After the research team at Nabisco had generated more than two dozen new-product ideas for a substitute for partially hydrogenated oils that tastes the same but has zero trans fat, the company formed a committee to analyze whether the product ideas were consistent with the organization’s new-product strategy. This is called: a. business analysis b. diffusion c. idea screening d. test marketing e. idea generation ____ 83. In the _____ stage of new-product development, preliminary demand, cost, sales, and profitability estimates are made. a. prototype screening b. idea generation c. concept testing d. post-brainstorming e. business analysis ____ 84. In the _____ stage of new-product development, the technical feasibility of manufacturing the new product is examined as a prototype is produced. a. screening b. development c. market testing d. concept testing e. business analysis ____ 85. A team-oriented approach to new-product development is referred to as: a. simultaneous product development b. synergistic product development c. commercialized product development d. synchronized product development e. parallel product development ____ 86. When selecting a test market city, a researcher should look for a city: a. where the demographics and purchasing habits mirror the overall market for the product b. that has media spillover from other cities to increase media alternatives c. that is as large as possible d. that has limited distribution e. where there is no competition ____ 87. Which of the following has been found to be an efficient substitute for traditional methods of conducting test markets? a. Product sampling b. Simulated product adoption c. Online test marketing d. Simulated diffusion e. Market concentration ____ 88. During the _____ stage of the new-product development process, production starts, inventories are built up, the product is shipped to distribution points, the sales force is trained, and advertising and promotion begin. a. commercialization b. product testing c. market analysis d. product prototyping e. simulated marketing ____ 89. Firms that routinely experience success in new-product introduction tend to have: a. strong leadership b. a history of a sales orientation c. an obsession with quantity rather than quality d. an unwillingness to fail e. all of the choices ____ 90. The main goal of the global product development process is to: a. come up with a single standard product or product line suitable for all global markets b. expand the number of different new-product offerings so that individual country needs are more likely to be met c. develop every product for potential worldwide distribution and adaptation to other countries d. come up with new-product ideas in the United States and use global markets as test markets e. repeat the steps in the process with marketing teams in each and every foreign country targeted ____ 91. Because Laurence did not know companies actually sold pet insurance so that owners could pay for operations on their pets in the event of a sickness or accident, he paid almost $4,000 to have his dog’s broken hip replaced. Once he discovered such a product existed, he perceived the insurance to be a(n): a. heterogeneous shopping product b. diffusion c. market laggard d. product diversification e. innovation ____ 92. The process by which the adoption of an innovation spreads is referred to as: a. diffusion b. circulation c. transmission d. dissemination e. dispersion ____ 93. The process by which the adoption of 3D HD televisions spreads is an example of: a. test marketing b. diffusion c. product dissemination d. innovative dispersal e. marketing communication ____ 94. _____ are eager to try new ideas and products. They typically have higher incomes, are better educated, and are more cosmopolitan than other categories of adopters. a. Early adopters b. Innovators c. Early majority d. Late majority e. Laggards ____ 95. Mitch purchased a 32-inch HD television right after they were introduced in the marketplace and paid over $8,000 for it. He has a master’s degree in business and is well-informed about electronic products. He is venturesome and is always looking for new products to try. Mitch is best described as a(n): a. early adopter b. early majority c. innovator d. diffusers e. lead consumer ____ 96. All of the following statements about how adopters participate in the diffusion process are true EXCEPT: a. early adopters may also be opinion leaders b. laggards are the last consumers to adopt a new product c. there are three categories of consumers who will adopt an innovation d. the dominant characteristic of members of the late majority is skepticism e. innovators are the first to purchase a new product ____ 97. Liz tends to adopt new products sooner than a lot of other people, but she weighs the pros and cons before buying. She does considerable product research, but her friends don’t really look to her for information. She really deliberates before she makes a purchase. Liz is best described as a(n): a. innovator b. early adopter c. early majority d. late majority e. laggard ____ 98. Which category of adopters adopt a new product because most of their friends have already adopted it? a. Innovators b. Early majority c. Early adopters d. Laggards e. Late majority ____ 99. Which is the last adopter category to adopt an innovation? a. Late majority b. Laggards c. Late diffusers d. Reluctant adopters e. Traditionalists ____ 100. All of the following are product characteristics influencing the rate of adoption EXCEPT: a. complexity b. compatibility c. relative advantage d. observability e. distribution ____ 101. Which product factor influencing the rate of adoption represents the degree of difficulty involved in understanding and using a new product? a. Complexity b. Compatibility c. Relative advantage d. Observability e. Trialability ____ 102. Oakley, the manufacturer of protective eyewear for sports enthusiasts, has recently introduced Oakley’s Thump, UV sunglasses that allow the wearer to store and listen to 120 different songs. Which of the following product characteristics would likely exert the greatest influence on the market success of these new glasses? a. Compatibility b. Comparability c. Complexity d. Tangibility e. Competitive advantage ____ 103. Which product characteristic affecting the rate of adoption represents the degree to which the new product is consistent with existing values and product knowledge, past experiences, and current needs? a. Complexity b. Compatibility c. Relative advantage d. Observability e. Trialability ____ 104. Many product failures such as Cucumber antiperspirant spray, Toaster Eggs, and Health-Sea sea-sausages most likely did not succeed because they did not conform to the product characteristic of: a. complexity b. trialability c. total advantage d. observability e. compatibility ____ 105. The product characteristic affecting the rate of adoption characterized by the degree to which a product is perceived as superior to existing substitutes is: a. compatibility b. complexity c. relative advantage d. product differentiation e. competitive advantage ____ 106. Which product characteristic affecting the rate of adoption of a new product represents the degree to which the benefits or other results of using the product can be communicated to target customers? a. Observability b. Diffusion c. Adoption d. Trialability e. Complexity ____ 107. Razor scooters gained instant popularity because walkers and runners frequently saw people on the scooters zipping by them and having fun. This information suggests the adoption rate of the Razor scooter was most affected by which product characteristic? a. Complexity b. Trialability c. Relative advantage d. Observability e. Compatibility ____ 108. The degree to which a product can be used on a limited basis represents which product characteristic influencing the rate of adoption? a. Complexity b. Trialability c. Observability d. Relative advantage e. Sampling ____ 109. A biological metaphor that traces the stages of a product’s acceptance, from its introduction (birth) to its decline (death) is called the: a. product diffusion process b. product phase c. product adoption stages d. product evolution cycle e. product life cycle ____ 110. All the brands that satisfy a particular type of need such as shaving products, laundry detergent, soft drinks, and furniture make up a(n): a. product life cycle stage b. primary group c. adopter category d. product category e. reference group ____ 111. Patio furniture, lighting fixtures, microwave ovens, canned corn, and athletic shoes are examples of: a. PLC line items b. line-extendable categories c. brand classes d. brand groupings e. product categories ____ 112. A brand of iced tea called Gold Peak has high marketing costs as well as high production costs. Promotions for the product are aimed at gaining distribution and informing consumers that this premium product tastes like its home brewed. In which stage of the product life cycle is Gold Peak iced tea? a. Introductory b. Growth c. Maturity d. Decline e. Saturation ____ 113. The phase of the product life cycle in which healthy profits usually begin to appear is the _____ stage. a. growth b. decline c. introductory d. maturity e. commercialization ____ 114. During the growth stage of the product life cycle: a. there is little emphasis on the distribution strategy b. demand for the product is limited to high-income consumers c. prices increase due to economies of scale d. there is decreased direct competition e. profits peak ____ 115. At the beginning of the maturity stage of the product life cycle, sales typically: a. become flat and do not change b. increase at an increasing rate c. decrease at a decreasing rate d. decrease at an increasing rate e. increase at a decreasing rate ____ 116. Which of the following products is most likely to be in the decline stage of its product life cycle? a. Cookie mixes b. Wireless mobile phones c. Programmable CD-ROMs d. Funeral caskets e. Prerecorded audiocassette tapes ____ 117. You are a product manager for a manufacturer of trampolines. You have determined that the trampoline is in the maturity stage of the product life cycle. To keep your product from entering the decline stage, you should: a. use promotion to increase primary demand for trampolines b. abandon peripheral target markets for trampolines c. raise the price of your trampolines because customers are not price sensitive in this stage d. eliminate all unnecessary marketing expense e. promote trampolines heavily to dealers and customers Fitbit The pedometer is getting kicked up a notch with the new Fitbit device. The Fitbit is a $99 motion-detecting sensing device that can measure the user’s activity even when asleep. It digitally records the distance a user walks or runs, right down to the number of steps, and calories burned. The device wirelessly sends data to its Web site, fitbit.com, giving users minute-by-minute details. Users can add consumption information at the Web site, allowing an accurate picture of calorie consumption and expenditures. Unlike other devices, like the Nike + iPod Sport Kit that monitors walking and running and sells for $29 or the Zeo Personal Sleep Coach that records brainwaves while the user is sleeping and sells for $399, the Fitbit combines both functions. The first-time Fitbit setup isn’t very easy for users, but once over that hurdle, it’s relative easy to use. ____ 118. Refer to Fitbit. The idea for the Fitbit was generated from an employee retreat in which everyone was encouraged to think of unlimited product ideas for the fitness-minded consumer. Participants did not critique any of the ideas, as the goal at that point was just to generate ideas. What idea-generating technique does this illustrate? a. Brainstorming b. Brain dumping c. Snowball sampling d. Laddering e. Entropy Rapala VMC Corporation Finland-based Rapala VMC Corporation is the world’s largest fishing lure manufacturer. It developed its first fishing lure––a cigar-shaped minnow––in 1962. The annual market for fishing lures in terms of retail sales is approximately $600 million. Rapala VMC garnered one-third of that amount in 2008. New lures must be introduced each year in order to stay competitive in this industry. Like other lure manufacturers, Rapala focuses on two questions in developing and making new lures: Does it work, and does it look good? Developing a new lure takes two or three years and involves extensive field testing by tournament professionals and fishing guides. At the annual fishing industry trade show in 2008, Rapala unveiled the “dream lure for the 21st century.” ____ 119. Refer to Rapala. The “dream lure for the 21st century” will more than likely be an example of a(n): a. new product line b. addition to existing product line c. discontinuous innovation d. improvement of existing product e. repositioned product ____ 120. Refer to Rapala. The testing of new lures by tournament professionals and fishing guides would take place in which stage of new-product development? a. Commercialization b. Idea generation c. Idea screening d. Concept testing e. Product development ____ 121. Refer to Rapala. After the trade show, the newest lure made by Rapala will enter which stage of the new-product development process? a. Commercialization b. Idea generation c. Idea screening d. Concept testing e. Product development ____ 122. Refer to Rapala. Because buyers of fishing lures want to have the newest, most technologically improved lure, most of Rapala’s customers would more than likely fall into the _____ category of adopters. a. laggards b. prompt diffusers c. early adopters d. innovators e. early majority ____ 123. Refer to Rapala. Fishing lures are most likely in the _____ stage of their product life cycle. a. saturation b. maturity c. growth d. innovation e. decline Going to the Dogs Demand for pet services is greatly increasing across the United States. In fact, Americans will spend nearly $44 billion dollars on their pets this year. Many American dog owners are seeking out “doggy day cares” that are more like a resort or spa than an ordinary kennel for their canine companion. Day care services for dogs now include toy rooms, outside play areas, doggie massages, treadmills, swimming pools, and cushy beds for nap time. Pet owners can watch their pets via a webcam, and some doggy day cares have a phone where owners can talk to their dogs when they feel their pets need to hear their voices. Rates vary from $20 to $45 a day per pet, depending on the amenities that the pet owner chooses. ____ 124. Refer to Going to the Dogs. The doggy day care center is more like a dog resort than a dog kennel. A dog day care represents what type of new product? a. Competitive innovation b. Discontinuous innovation c. New product line d. Revision of existing product e. Higher-priced product ____ 125. Refer to Going to the Dogs. Suppose that before opening the It’s a Dog’s Life doggy resort the owners gathered together a group of ten dog owners to discuss what they would want to see in the ideal dog day care center. This would be an example of: a. idea screening b. diffusion c. a focus group interview d. basic research e. observation ____ 126. Refer to Going to the Dogs. For many dog owners, it may be hard to understand the difference between a traditional kennel and a dog day care, especially given the price differential. As a result, dog day cares may offer special low rates for first-time users in an effort to reduce which of the following issues concerning the rate of diffusion? a. Compatibility b. Complexity c. Observability d. Innovativeness e. Relative advantage ____ 127. Refer to Going to the Dogs. One challenge to adoption of the dog day care is the fact that dog owners are used to paying a somewhat minimal fee for boarding their dogs in a kennel, while a day care center may demand many times as much for the same time span. This suggests that the _____ of the new product may affect the rate of diffusion. a. compatibility b. complexity c. relative advantage d. observability e. trialability Voodoo Envy Hewlett-Packard is the number one seller of PCs worldwide. The company has been increasingly more creative in its computer designs following the trend set by Apple, Inc. HP has created an ultra-thin laptop called the Voodoo Envy. The laptop is less than a half inch thick and weighs a little more than three pounds. It is priced at $2,000. HP created the laptop to compete against Apple’s MacBook Air and a model created by the Lenovo Group Ltd. Both these models were priced at around $3,000. The MacBook Air does not have removable batteries or a built-in socket for plugging into Ethernet networks. HP’s Voodoo Envy does have removable batteries and offers an Ethernet port that is part of its power adapter. The Voodoo can also be booted up in less than five seconds, made possible by software developed by HP. ____ 128. Refer to Voodoo Envy. Apple seems to have a success with its MacBook Air. However, not all of Apple’s new product efforts have been successful. For example, the Newton MessagePad failed in the marketplace. While a revolutionary product that created the PDA industry, many consumers perceived the product as too big. For success, it is essential to have a good match between product _____ and market: a. attributes; demographics b. trialability; comprehension c. value; income d. observability; freedom e. features; needs ____ 129. Refer to Voodoo Envy. The price of the Voodoo Envy is expected to be approximately $2,000. According to Forrester Research, anything above $1,500 in this market would be considered “ultra expensive.” In order to motivate consumers to spend $2,000 for the Voodoo Envy, HP will probably need to spend considerable money on advertising to educate consumers to the advantages of ultra-thin laptops. This is a characteristic of which stage of the product life cycle? a. Equity b. Growth c. Maturity d. Introductory e. Decline ____ 130. Kayak.com is a company that allows customers to efficiently search databases to find the best airline and hotel deals all over the Web. Kayak does not make bookings but rather provides recommendations for the best travel plans. Travel providers pay Kayak a commission when customers click through to their sites. Kayak.com, travelers, the airlines, and the hotels are all part of a: a. facilitating agency b. marketing mix intermediary c. selective promotion channel d. marketing channel or channel of distribution e. transportation channel or channel of movement ____ 131. A discrepancy of _____ is the difference between the amount of product produced and the amount an end user wants to buy. a. space b. quantity c. assortment d. accumulation e. possession ____ 132. McKesson Wholesalers provides healthcare products to pharmacies. It purchases bandages, gauze, antibacterial cream, and ointments from a variety of different manufacturers and resells them to pharmacies so that many of the items a customer might need for a cut will be available in the store. McKesson is aiding consumers by overcoming a: a. spatial discrepancy b. discrepancy of quantity c. discrepancy of assortment d. demand discrepancy e. discrepancy of possession ____ 133. Certified Grocers Midwest, Inc., the Chicago-based grocery wholesale cooperative, provides all kinds of meats, cereals, canned and fresh fruits and vegetables, beauty aids, healthcare items, and pet products to the supermarkets in its channel. Certified Grocers is aiding consumers by overcoming: a. spatial discrepancy b. discrepancy of quantity c. discrepancy of assortment d. demand discrepancy e. discrepancy of possession ____ 134. The difference between the location of a producer and the location of widely scattered markets represents a(n) _____ discrepancy. a. spatial b. temporal c. assortment d. quantity e. ownership ____ 135. Marketing channels make distribution simpler by reducing the number of transactions required to get products from manufacturers to consumers. This is called: a. forward integration b. contact efficiency c. elimination of temporal discrepancies d. sorting e. reciprocity ____ 136. Retailers and merchant wholesalers are examples of intermediaries that: a. take title to a product b. create temporal and spatial discrepancies c. use consumer promotions d. do not benefit from any economies of scale e. are accurately described by all of these statements ____ 137. Agents and brokers: a. have a great deal of control and risk invested in the goods b. only represent manufacturers in sales situations c. have a great deal of input on the terms of the sale d. generally are on salary with the manufacturer e. do not take title to merchandise ____ 138. _____ are intermediaries who facilitate the sales of a product from producer to end user by representing retailers, wholesalers, or manufacturers and providing little input as to the terms of the sale. a. Marketing facilitators b. Channel cooperatives c. Agents and brokers d. Merchant wholesalers e. Channel functionaries ____ 139. Which of the following is a transactional function performed by intermediaries? a. Sorting b. Researching c. Risk taking d. Physically distributing e. Storing ____ 140. Which of the following is a logistical function performed by intermediaries? a. Sorting b. Negotiating c. Financing d. Risk taking e. All of these choices ____ 141. Marketing channels perform all of the following logistical activities EXCEPT: a. sorting b. storing c. physically distributing d. risk taking e. breaking bulk ____ 142. Breaking bulk at the wholesale level is called: a. allocating b. accumulation c. storing d. downsizing e. grading ____ 143. Which of the following are examples of facilitating functions performed by wholesaling intermediaries? a. Sorting and storing b. Risk taking and promotion c. Assorting, accumulating, grading, and allocating d. Researching and financing e. Financial management and storing ____ 144. _____ is the efficient and cost-effective forward and reverse flow and storage of goods, services, and related information into, through, and out of channel member companies. a. Disintermediation b. Logistics c. Materials handling d. Intermodal transportation e. Contract logistics ____ 145. _____ describes the process of strategically managing the efficient flow and storage of raw materials, in-process inventory, and finished goods from point of origin to point of consumption. a. Contract logistics b. Logistics c. Cross-docking d. Disintermediation e. Channel facilitation ____ 146. One configuration of a marketing channel entails producers selling to consumers with no intermediaries involved. This is called a: a. limited distribution system b. conventional channel c. vertical marketing system d. reciprocal channel e. direct channel ____ 147. All of the following are typical channel members in marketing channels for consumer products EXCEPT: a. retailers b. agent/brokers c. industrial distributors d. producers e. wholesalers ____ 148. Vutek manufactures printing machines used to print high-resolution graphics for billboards, bus cards, banners, and posters. For distribution, you would expect Vutek to use a: a. network of facilitating agents b. horizontally integrated channel c. reciprocal channel d. direct channel e. vertical marketing system ____ 149. Centigon is a manufacturer of customized armored vehicles for military, private, presidential, and commercial uses. Each armored vehicle is designed to deliver security on the road while also achieving optimum levels of performance and comfort. For distribution, you would expect Centigon to use a: a. network of facilitating agents b. horizontally integrated channel c. reciprocal channel d. direct channel e. vertical marketing system ____ 150. _____ distribution occurs when a producer selects two or more different channels to distribute the same products to target markets. a. Selective b. Intensive c. Dual d. Contractual e. Cumulative ____ 151. Which of the following enables a company to use another manufacturer’s already established channel? a. Strategic channel alliances b. Relationship channels c. Reverse channels d. Multiple distribution systems e. Nontraditional channelization ____ 152. When Delphi-Grundig, a manufacturer of state-of-the-art car radios, decided to expand its marketing efforts into countries in which its products are not currently available, it did not have the time or resources to spend on developing new channels of distribution. Delphi-Grundig should consider a(n): a. industrial distributor b. franchising system c. reverse channel d. strategic channel alliance e. channel cooperative ____ 153. Which of the following statements concerning how market factors affect channel decisions is true? a. Industrial customers tend to buy in larger quantities and require more customer service. b. Geographically concentrated target markets should be served with an indirect sales force. c. Widely dispersed markets require fewer intermediaries. d. New firms in extremely competitive markets will be more successful if they use indirect channels. e. A very large market requires fewer intermediaries. ____ 154. _____ is distribution aimed at maximum market coverage. It is used for many convenience goods and supplies that need to be available in every outlet where the potential customer might want to buy them. a. Selective distribution b. Channel franchising c. Intensive distribution d. Horizontal channeling e. Exclusive distribution ____ 155. Chewing gum and soft drinks are sold in grocery stores, service stations, convenience stores, drugstores, discount stores, and motel vending machines. This is a an example of a(n) _____ distribution strategy. a. exclusive b. reciprocal c. selective d. horizontal e. intensive ____ 156. Which of the following manufacturers most likely uses intensive distribution? a. M&M’s candies b. Jen-Weld windows c. Calloway golf clubs d. Rollerblade in-line skates e. Smith & Wesson firearms ____ 157. _____ distribution is achieved by screening dealers to eliminate all but a few in any single geographic area. Shopping goods and some specialty products that consumers are willing to search for are sold this way. a. Intensive b. Selective c. Exclusive d. Dual e. Controlled ____ 158. Canesta Company has developed a virtual keyboard out of light to be used with cell phones and PDAs. The product beams an image of a keyboard on a desk, allowing the user to type on the image. The words are picked up by the user’s digital device. When introduced to the market, the device will sell for less than $50. What level of distribution intensity should the company use? a. Exclusive b. Controlled c. Extensive d. Reciprocal e. Selective ____ 159. Rolex is an expensive brand of watches. The company has a policy of only having one or two dealers within a given large geographic area. Buyers of Rolex watches will travel extensively to acquire just the right watch. This is an illustration of which level of distribution intensity? a. Exclusive b. Intensive c. Selective d. Reciprocal e. Premium ____ 160. Which of the following types of distribution channel relationships is considered to be temporary? a. Arm’s length b. Functional c. Cooperative d. Hierarchical e. Integrated ____ 161. Which channel relationship is less ambiguous than an arm’s-length relationship but without the longer-term and/or capital investment required to achieve full integration? a. Negotiated b. Functional c. Cooperative d. Hierarchical e. Intermediate ____ 162. In 1935, Howard Johnson teamed up with Reginald Sprague to establish the first modern restaurant franchise. Their idea was to let independent operators use the same name, food, supplies, logo and even building design in exchange for a fee. In terms of the type of channel relationships established, this nonequity agreement would require a _____ relationship. a. negotiated b. functional c. cooperative d. hierarchical e. segregated ____ 163. Some countries, such as the Peoples Republic of China and to some extent India, require foreign companies to form joint ventures with domestic firms in order to enter a market. This requirement often forces technology transfers and managerial control to the domestic partner. These types of equity agreements also require the establishment of a(n) _____ channel relationship. a. arm’s-length b. functional c. cooperative d. hierarchical e. integrated ____ 164. The capacity of a particular marketing channel member to control or influence the behavior of other channel members is known as: a. channel power b. channel conflict c. channel control d. channel dominance e. channel inversion ____ 165. A situation that occurs when one marketing channel member intentionally affects another member’s behavior is called: a. channel power b. channel control c. channel conflict d. channel dominance e. channel inversion ____ 166. Channel conflict: a. always has an adverse effect on the members of the channel b. is not caused by ideological differences, because such differences would prevent the members from ever operating as a channel c. is often caused by an inability of some channel members to keep up with the changing times d. can appear as either internal or external e. does not occur when multiple distribution channels are used ____ 167. Honda uses just-in-time manufacturing to build its Odyssey minivans. Five companies that make component parts for the Honda Odyssey relocated to Alabama and states bordering Alabama when Honda announced plans to build a new Odyssey manufacturing plant in Alabama. This relocation in order to provide efficient delivery of goods indicates that Honda is a: a. channel captain b. horizontal integrator c. distribution champion d. distribution ombudsman e. demand maverick ____ 168. Goodyear tire dealers were hurt financially when Goodyear made the decision to distribute its tires through retailers such as Sears and Walmart in addition to the exclusive dealerships it had established. The conflict that occurred at the retail level is an example of: a. horizontal conflict b. trade loading c. value-added pricing d. exclusive distribution e. channel partnering ____ 169. _____ is the joint effort of all channel members to create a channel that serves customers and creates a competitive advantage. a. Selective partnering b. Direct distribution c. Channel partnering d. Intensive integration e. Closed channel distribution ____ 170. Many large champagne sellers do their own importing and desire to maintain independent price points in different markets. Thus, a bottle of champagne might cost $45 in the United States, while the same bottle might be only 20 euros (about $30) in France. It is often profitable to buy the wine in Europe, typically from an unauthorized distributor, and resell it in the United States. U.S. wine merchants who do so would be engaging in: a. black marketing b. channel malfeasance c. countertrading d. reverse channeling e. gray marketing ____ 171. It seems counterintuitive, but Jon Jordan, CEO of Southern Audio Services (SAS) in Baton Rouge, wants to curb the number of dealers who are selling his car speakers. Jordan understands that he can’t handpick all his vendors, but he never expected the rise in unauthorized dealers that came with the e-commerce boom. When Jordan decided to look for the SAS name on eBay, he came up thousands of sellers. These eBay sellers are engaging in: a. black marketing b. channel malfeasance c. countertrading d. reverse channeling e. gray marketing ____ 172. Paul operates Kayak.com, a company that allows customers to efficiently search company databases and find the best airline and hotel deals all over the Web. Kayak does not make bookings but rather provides recommendations for the best travel plans. Travel providers pay Kayak a commission for most customers who click through to their sites. Paul wants his users to have as short and sweet an experience on Kayak as possible. Time is of the essence in responding to any customer question, especially in this day where airfare can increase dramatically in just a couple of hours. Paul is devoted to: a. improving service delivery b. maximizing queues c. reducing discrepancies of assortment d. reducing wait time e. managing service capacity R. H. Kurt & Son R. H. Kurt & Son, Inc. distributes rifles for both hunting and target shooting, rifle barrels, triggers, cleaning equipment, and reloading equipment to sporting equipment retailers and many large discount stores. It carries products from 41 different manufacturers. The manufacturers whose products it carries are known for producing superior products and are leaders in their industries. In addition, Kurt is able to repair damaged rifles through its gunsmith service, which is available to all of its retailers. ____ 173. Refer to R. H. Kurt & Son. If Kurt wishes to make sure its gunsmith service is profitable, it must consider: a. how it can minimize the time a customer must wait for his or her rifle to be repaired b. how the opening of hunting season will affect demand for its services c. how to maintain an adequate staff d. whether to ship the repaired rifle to the customer or the retailer e. all of these options Redbox Movie DVD sales represent a $16 billion market, and rentals make up another $7.5 billion. Naturally, production studios would prefer consumers purchase DVDs rather than rent them. Production studios like Twentieth-Century Fox, Warner Bros., and General Electric refused to sell new releases to Redbox, a DVD vending machine company, until almost a month after new releases arrived in stores. Redbox, the ubiquitous DVD rental red kiosks found in and outside of convenience stores, grocery stores, drugstores, fast-food restaurants, and Walmart, is cutting in on production companies’ profits. These studios are tangled in lawsuits with Redbox. Sony, Paramount, and Lionsgate, on the other hand, permit distribution through Redbox, and Disney allows third-party distribution to Redbox. With more than 20,000 kiosks now in operation, Redbox ranks fifth in DVD rental revenues, which is impressive considering the rental fee is only $1.00. But Blockbuster is trying to steal vending market share by allowing NCR Corporation, known for ATM machines, to license its name to place Blockbuster Express kiosks in similar types of locations. ____ 174. Refer to Redbox. Warner Bros., Blockbuster, Redbox, Walmart, and third-party DVD distributors are part of a: a. distribution cooperative b. marketing mix c. transportation channel d. marketing channel e. logistics system ____ 175. Refer to Redbox. Video stores that distribute DVDs usually also sell popcorn, candy, soft drinks, and entertainment publications. Basically, they overcome discrepancies of quantity and assortment by combining products into collections or assortment that consumers want available in one place. Which channel function does this describe? a. Logistical functions b. Transactional functions c. Facilitating functions d. Purchasing functions e. Secondary function