Reference no: EM131130486

Section 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE

Choose the best answer for each of the following.

1. Christmas cactus, or Schlumbergera, has showy red flowers. Though known as "Flor de Maio", or May flower, in Brazil where it is found in nature, this popular houseplant starts flowering in mid December in the Northern Hemisphere. Experiments show that it has a critical daylength of 12 hours. What can you conclude about regulation of flowering in this plant?

A. It is a short day plant.
B. It is a long day plant.
C. It is a short night plant.
D. It is day neutral.
E. It requires chilling before it can flower.

2. It should be possible to "trick" a Christmas cactus to delay its blooming for Valentine's Day (February 14). Which of the following would be the best way to do this? (Additional information: the autumnal equinox is September 22).

A. Move the plant into the refrigerator for 2 months, starting in October.
B. Make sure the plant gets at least 13 hours of light every day, starting at the middle of September, until the middle of November, and then give it no more than 11 hours of light.
C. Keep the plant in 24 hour light until Groundhog's Day (Feb. 2), and then transfer it to 12-hour days.
D. Make sure the plant gets at least 13 hours of light, starting at the beginning of September, until February, and then give it no more than 11 hours of light.
E. Grow the plant on a windowsill with no artificial light until September 22. Then, keeping it in the window, give it a flash of far red light at midnight every day until the middle of December, and then provide natural lighting after that.

3. Many plants defend themselves against herbivory by producing toxins. Since compounds that are toxic to animals are also usually toxic to plants, plants must have strategies to avoid being poisoned by their own biochemistry. These strategies include:

A. Isolation of toxins in special compartments
B. Production of the toxin only after cell damage has occurred.
C. Modification of the plant's enzymes or receptors so that the toxin is ineffective in that plant.
D. A and B
E. All of the above.

4. Tissue damage from insects chewing on a leaf can cause the whole plant to ramp up production of compounds that deter herbivory. The steps that lead to this defense response, in order, are:

A. activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream, jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor, transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor, production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor
B. production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor, activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream, transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor
C. production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor, activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream, jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor, transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor
D. transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor, production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor, activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream
E. transcription factor promotes synthesis of protease inhibitor, production of elicitor, elicitor binds receptor, activated receptor induces jasmonate production, jasmonate moves through the phloem stream, jasmonate binds transcriptional repressor

5. You can find plants growing almost anywhere, including on land that is very dry. Which of the following is not found in plants adapted live in arid environments?

A. Stomata tucked away in cavities or crypts on leaves.
B. Aerenchyma, a tissue that stores oxygen
C. Deep roots for collecting water far underground
D. A thick cuticle and dense trichomes (hairs) on leaf surfaces
E. Succulence, the storage of water in leaves or stems

6. A vegetative shoot apical meristem is converted to the production of floral organs instead of leaves by the presence of a compound known as florigen. Which of the following steps is not involved in florigen action?

A. CO promotes the synthesis of the transcription factor FT in the SAM.
B. FT forms a dimer with FD in the SAM.
C. Inductive photoperiod stabilizes the transcription factor CO in leaf phloem.
D. FT moves via the phloem to the SAM.
E. FT + FD promote the transcription of AP1, which results in sepal formation.

7. Plants grow toward the light (phototropism) and against gravity as a result of asymmetric growth stimulated by redistribution of the hormone

A. Ethylene
B. Abscisic acid
C. Auxin
D. Gibberellic acid
E. Cytokinin

8. Nodulation is an adaptation that allows some plants to survive growing on soils poor in

A. Carbon
B. Iron
C. Nitrogen
D. Magnesium
E. Boron

9. The size of the openings that allow gas exchange for photosynthesis, the stomata, is regulated. Which of the following is not important for opening the stomata?

A. Cell wall reinforcements that make the guard cells curve when they fill with water
B. Blue light receptors on the plasma membrane of guard cells that activate a proton pump
C. An increase in water potential when proton export triggers an influx of K+ and Cl- ions in guard cells
D. Chloroplasts in guard cells, which start producing sugars when leaves are exposed to light.
E. All of the above are important (changed at exam)

10. Eukaryotes often engulf bacteria and other single cells in order to acquire nutrients, but sometimes the engulfed cell persists, which leads an endosymbiosis. Which of the following is not an example of endosymbiosis in eukaryotes?

A. Uptake of a proteobacterium that became mitochondria
B. Uptake of cyanobacteria that became chloroplasts in the ancestors of green plants
C. Uptake of red algae that became the chloroplasts of brown algae
D. Uptake of Rhizobium in root cortex cells of legumes
E. All of the above are examples of ancient or modern endosymbiosis.

11. Eukaryotic cells exhibit of number of features absent from prokaryotes which permitted great diversification of form. Which of the following is not important in this process?

A. Cytoskeleton upon which vesicles can move through the cell
B. Cytoskeleton that allows cells to change shape
C. Endosymbiosis leading to energy organelles
D. Microtubules for accurate segregation of multiple chromosomes at cell division
E. None of the above-they are all important.

12. Sexual reproduction increases diversity in a population by all of the following except:

A. Reassortment of alleles on a chromosome
B. Increasing chromosome number in each sexual generation
C. Blending of genomes from two different parents
D. Promoting heterozygosity that can mask deleterious mutations
E. All of the above increase diversity in a population

13. The space between neighboring cell membranes in epithelial tissue has been experimentally demonstrated to be largely due to the type of ___________ in these cells.

A. actins
B. cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)
C. integrins
D. kinases
E. myosins

14. Which component of a feedback mechanism is responsible for evaluating sensory inputs and then triggering appropriate responses?

A. Effector
B. Integrator
C. Sensor
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

15. The mechanism of an antibody which occurs when the binding of the antibody inhibits the function of the molecule it binds to is (the) ______________.

A. agglutination
B. complement response
C. neutralization
D. opsonization
E. precipitation

16. The innate immune response:

A. lacks receptors for foreign molecules.
B. has a few receptors which bind foreign molecules of a class of pathogens.
C. has a few receptors which bind foreign molecules of very specific pathogens.
D. has a wide array of possible receptors which bind foreign molecules of a class of pathogens.
E. has a wide array of possible receptors which bind foreign molecules of very specific pathogens.

17. The notochord in amphibians has the following function(s):

A. To become the spinal column later in development.
B. To produce a signal that induces overlaying ectoderm to become neural tissue.
C. To produce a signal that organizes the somites.
D. All of the above
E. B. and C.

18. In mammalian retina rod cells the membrane potential _________ when a photon is absorbed.

A. depolarizes
B. hyperpolarizes
C. doesn't change
D depolarizes or hyperpolarizes depending upon the color of the photon.
E. depolarizes or hyperpolarizes depending upon the activity of nearby ganglion cells.

19. The movements of granules of calcium carbonate called otoliths are involved with the following sense(s):

A. head position
B. body movement
C. hearing
D. All of the above.
E. A. and B.

20. Binding of ATP to myosin in striated muscle:

A. initiates the power stroke.
B. knocks calcium off of troponin.
C. recocks the myosin to its extended conformation.
D. releases calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum.
E. releases the myosin from the actin.

21. ADH promotes _______ by __________ the permeability of the ___________ to water.

A. antidiuresis; decreasing; collecting ducts
B. antidiuresis; decreasing; descending limb of Henle
C. antidiuresis; increasing; collecting ducts
D. diuresis; decreasing; collecting ducts
E. diuresis; increasing; descending limb of Henle

22. Your aunts and uncles are killed and you pledge to your mother to sacrifice your own hopes and aspirations of raising one child to raise your orphaned cousins. According to Hamilton's rule what is the minimum number of cousins you would need to raise for this to be worthwhile?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
E. 9

23. Which of the following are costs associated with group living?

A. Groups are often at greater risk of detection by predators
B. Members of groups may face more competition for resources
C. Group living increases the risk of transmitting communicable diseases
D. All of the above
E. A. and B.

24. Which of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment?

A. facilitators
B. humidity
C. predators
D. prey
E. A., C. and D.

25. Which of the following statements describes navigation?

A. Change in movement direction or speed due to stimulus.
B. Moving passively in a current.
C. Movement towards or away from a source of stimulus.
D. Use of some sort of compass to direct movement.
E. Use of landmarks to direct movement or to find locations.

26. Which of the following latitudes is most likely to have a desert and why?

A. Equator; prevalent rising air cools and dries out
B. 30°; prevalent rising air cools and dries out
C. 30°; prevalent descending air warms and dries out
D. 30°; prevalent descending air cools and dries out
E. 60°; prevalent rising air cools and dries out

27. Which of the following statements about viruses is false?

A. All domains of life can be infected by viruses.
B. Viruses likely evolved from cellular organisms.
C. Viruses, unlike prions, contain nucleic acids.
D. Viruses have smaller genomes than viroids.
E. Viral nucleic acids can undergo recombination.

28. Which of the following aquatic life zones is most likely to have lowest species richness?

A. Coastal zone
B. Estuaries
C. Freshwater lake
D. Intertidal zone
E. Pelagic zone.

29. Which of the following is not a threat to prairies and prairie remnants in Iowa?

A. Expansion of roadways
B. Herbicide use by nearby farms
C. Incursion of trees
D. Periodic fires
E. All of the above are threats.

30. Which of the following factors is likely to influence a biomes temperature and precipitation?

A. Latitude.
B. Proximity to a large water mass.
C. Altitude of biome and nearby geographic features.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C.

31. You mark and capture 20 rodents in your local forest. In your second sample of the 100 rodents you captured 5 were marked. What is the estimated population size of the population of the rodents?

A. 105
B. 120
C. 200
D. 400
E. 2000

32. A species which has a Type I survival curve is most likely to:

A. have an average lifespan which is short.
B. have a few individuals which can potential be immortal.
C. have an equal chance of dying at age 5 as at age 50.
D. die due to senescence.
E. provide no prenatal care to their offspring.

33. Which of the following is an assumption of simple exponential growth models:

A. Population density does not alter per-individual growth rates (r).
B. There are limits to the size of the population.
C. Required resources are not infinite.
D. Lag effects exists and affect the rates of growth.
E. None of the above.

34. Which of the following would not be considered an Allee effect?

A. The same concentration of pollution is more lethal to one fish than it is to ten fish.
B. The reproductive success of male frogs decreases as the number of frogs at the breeding ground decreases.
C. The likelihood of starvation increases as the population increases in size.
D. The likelihood of a zebra being preyed upon by a lion increases the smaller the size of the zebra herd. (Changed at exam)
E. All of the above are examples of Allee effects.

35. A population is growing logistically. As the population size increases and approaches the carrying capacity:

A. the effective per-individual growth rate (reff) increases.
B. the effective per-individual growth rate (reff) decreases.
C. the effective per-individual growth rate (reff) stay the same.
D. birth rates increase while death rates decrease.
E. birth and death rates stay constant.

36. Which of the following would be consistent with a rectangular age structure? Note: this question was supposed to be triangular not rectangular so B and C would be the answer. All answers will be accepted for credit since none of them is completely right although for some of these rectangular nations A is happening....(Happy Holidays)

A. Population growth is negative with low birth rates.
B. Population growth is slow with high death rates.
C. Population growth is fast with low death rates.
D. All of the above.
E. B. and C.

37. Underdeveloped countries tend to have low growth rates but high death and birth rates. As countries undergo development:

A. initially death rates tend to fall along with birth rates; population growth continues at the same pace.
B. initially death rates tend to fall but birth rates remain high; population growth is accelerated.
C. initially death rates stay high but birth rates climb; population growth is accelerated.
D. initially death rates climb even higher and birth rates remain high; population growth ceases and the population decreases in size.
E. No pattern is commonly observed with development.

38. Optimization is an example of:

A. density dependent selection.
B. directional selection.
C. disruptive selection.
D. neutral selection.
E. stabilizing selection.

39. Which of the following would be likely to be observed for brood reduction species?

A. Only one egg is laid in years when resources are scarce.
B. All eggs are incubated only after the last egg is laid.
C. The resources provide in the eggs are much more costly to the mother than post-natally provided resources.
D. Chicks are altruistic with siblings.
E. Resources are generally hard to obtain each year.

40. K strategist are likely to:

A. be the prevalent plants in a prairie.
B. have a large number of offspring.
C. have young who are precocial.
D. provide no post-natal care.
E. None of the above.

41. Which of the following reproductive mechanisms is most likely for an R-strategist animal species?

A. External Fertilzation
B. Oviparous
C. Ovoviparous
D. Vivaporous
E. All of the above are equally likely

42. Reznick researched closely related guppies in pools on Trinidad. The guppies in different pools had differences in their life histories due to differences in the ____________ and these life histories were _________ when the guppies were moved to the other pools.

A. predator; observed to change
B. predator; not observed to change
C. prey species; observed to change
D. prey species; not observed to change
E. amount of prey; not observed to change

43. Observed differences in the life histories of the guppies from different pools included:

A. chromosome number differences.
B. size at maturity.
C. sensory abilities.
D. location on an Eltonian pyramid.
E. None of the above.

44. Species A and Species B occupy an area and you suspect they interact. When you remove species A the number of individuals of species B quickly increases. Which of the following is an ecological interaction which would be consistent with this observation along with an appropriate explanation?

A. competition; A and B compete for a limiting resource
B. commensalism; A benefits from the presence of B while A has no effect on B
C. amensalism; A is harmed by the presence of B while A has no effect on B
D. mutualism; A and B both receive a benefit from the other
E. predation; A is the prey for predator species B.

45. In general predation tends to ________ species diversity while competition ________ species diversity.

A. decrease; decreases
B. decrease; increases
C. increase; decreases
D. maintain; decreases
E. maintain; increases

46. Which of the following is the definition of a community?

A. An individual in its niche.
B. A group of organisms all of the same species.
C. A group of organisms of different species interacting with each other in an area.
D. An environment defined by its climate and geography.
E. None of the above.

47. Deciduous forests:

A. have warm winters and hot summers.
B. have cold winters and warm summers.
C. have fewer species of birds than prairies.
D. have less precipitation on average than prairies.
E. None of the above.

48. As the number of Batesian mimics increases:

A. the fitness of the model and mimic decreases.
B. the fitness of the model decreases and the fitness of the mimic increases.
C. the fitness of the model increases and the fitness of the mimic decreases.
D. the fitness of the model and mimic stay constant.
E. the fitness of the model and mimic increases.

49. Which of the following adaptations increases the likelihood of predator success in catching prey?

A. Batesian Mimicry
B. Crypsis of the prey
C. Exploitative Mimicry
D. Homotpy of the prey
E. Mullerian Mimicry

50. You observe an inverted Eltonian pyramid which contains a greater biomass of herbivores than producers. This can occur because:

A. the environment in this location allows the organisms residing there to not give off much energy as heat.
B. this environment contains a keystone predator.
C. the producers have very low rates of growth, r, as compared to the herbivores.
D. the producers have very high rates of growth, r, as compared to the herbivores.
E. the producers and the herbivores both have very low rates of growth, r.

51. Emlen's experiments on Indigo Buntings demonstrated that when naïve birds were exposed to a sky rotating around Betelgeuse (rather than Polaris) the night immediately prior to migration the birds are able to properly orient their migration. Just this result alone suggests:

A. an axis of rotation is necessary and sufficient for orientation.
B. an axis of rotation is necessary for orientation.
C. an axis of rotation is sufficient for orientation.
D. an axis of rotation is neither necessary nor sufficient for orientation.
E. Betelgeuse is necessary for proper orientation.

52. Fundamental niches:

A. are the same size or larger than realized niches.
B. can be limited due to the species evolutionary history.
C. can be limited due to competitive exclusion.
D. All of the above.
E. B. and C.

53. An Eltonian pyramid of ecosystem A has fewer trophic levels than an Eltonian pyramid of ecosystem B. A likely explanation for this difference is:

A. Ecosystem A has less herbicide and pollution than ecosystem B.
B. Ecosystem A has more endotherms than ecosystem B.
C. Ecosystem A is wetter than ecosystem B.
D Ecosystem A is warmer than ecosystem B.
E. None of the above.

54. The ecological efficiency of a large reptile is 20%. Its consumption efficiency is 50% and its assimilation efficiency is 50%. What would be its net production efficiency?

A. 0.5%
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 80%
E. 120%

55. Replacement of fossil fuels with efficient biofuels would be expected:

A. to increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B. to stabilize the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
C. to decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
D. to reduce the amount of methane in the atmosphere.
E. None of the above.

56. A very large portion of a small island in the Atlantic was cleared for an airfield during World War II. Soil was significantly disturbed but the ground was not paved. After the war, the airfield was abandoned. Years later plants and animals were observed to be recolonizing the airfield. This would be an example of:

A. biomagnification.
B. eusociality.
C. facilitation.
D. primary succession.
E. secondary succession.

57. Which of the following gasses protects the surface of the planet from excess UV light?

A. carbon dioxide.
B. freon.
C. methane
D. nitrogen
E. ozone.

58. Habitat fragmentation promotes species loss by:

A. decreasing edge effects.
B. decreasing remigration rates between habitat patches.
C. increasing edge effects.
D. increasing remigration rates between habitat patches.
E. B. and C.

59. Recent anthropogenic changes to mass cycles include:

A. increases in the release of carbon dioxide from geological stores.
B increases in the fixation of nitrogen from the atmospheric compartment to enrich the terrestrial compartment.
C. increases in the geological stores of water.
D. All of the above.
E. A. and B.

60. Acid precipitation:

A. has been increasing in the Northeast United States in the last 40 years.
B. has been observed to increase the species richness of lakes.
C. results from the burning of coal.
D. All of the above.
E. A. and C.

61. Which of the following is not an example of an edge effect?

A. A grassland predator invading the edges of the forest to hunt for food.
B. Trash from a nearby highway falling onto the shores of a lake.
C. A sudden increase of a forest predator leading to the loss of its forest prey and then the predators localized extinction.
D. Wind gusts blowing down trees on the outer perimeter of the forest.
E. All of the above are examples of edge effects.

62. Which of the following would likely lead to a species becoming endangered?

A. Ending trade in products made from species.
B. Introduction of an invasive competitor.
C. Restoration of the species degraded ecosystem.
D. Restoration of required disturbance to the ecosystem.
E. None of the above.

Section 2: Short Answer, Problems and Essays

Write your answers in the space provided below.

1. This question tests your knowledge of the characteristics that define the superkingdoms of eukaryotes. Fill in the blanks with the name of the group that has these features.

A. have sacs under cell membrane, unicellular only, have chloroplasts

B. have pseudopods, no chloroplasts, can aggregate

C. have posterior flagella, no chloroplasts, can be multicellular

D. have unequal flagella, have chloroplasts, can be multicellular

E. lack mitochondria but have chloroplasts, are single celled

2. Compare and contrast the cardiovascular system of mammals with the vascular tissue system of plants. [6pts] Many more possibilities here! First well describe in each section.

A. Describe two similarities, either anatomical or physiological, between these two systems.

B. Describe two differences, either anatomical or physiological, between these two systems.

3. In early spring just prior to the mating season, a male stickleback's belly region becomes red and he constructs a nest. He will then aggressively defend the nest from any intruding males. Niko Tinbergen's lab tested the response of mating season male sticklebacks to artificial models of fish [figures A. through E.]. The results of his experiments is summarized below

Model	Response
realistic fish (A.) with red belly	high aggression
realistic fish (A.) with green or grey belly	little to no aggression
misshapen fish (B. - E.) with red underside	moderate aggression
misshapen fish (B. - E.) with grey underside	little to no aggression

A. Based upon the above data, what aspect of the competitor male stickleback is the necessary and sufficient sign stimulus (or releaser) for this aggressive behavior. Explain your reasoning clearly and completely.

B. This behavior appears to be innate. Describe two characteristics of innate behaviors.

4. You are the research assistant of a famous biologist who studies island biogeography. He has gone missing after studying two islands: a smaller island (Y) far from the mainland and a larger island (Z) near the mainland. The only paper left behind is the following unlabelled figure:

His family wants you to prepare a final paper of his work. To begin this task on the figure above label each of the immigration and extinction lines with the appropriate island and clearly indicate the location on the x-axis of the predicted equilibrium species number for island Z and island Y.

5. You are studying the effects of nutrients and/or minerals on the growth of plants and algae in a series of small prairie lakes.

A. Name one nutrient or mineral which is often a limiting factor for growth of aquatic plants and algae.

B. Design an experiment (with a control) that could be used to test if the nutrient or mineral you named in A. was the limiting factor for growth of the plants. Be sure to indicate the expected results of the experiment and control if it was limiting.

C. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate terms: The overgrowth of algae on the surface of lakes results in _______________ of the lake. The aquatic plants die due to lack of ___________ and the aquatic animals die to lack of _____________ in the lake.

6. Consider the following food chain:

Predator M ← Carnivores N/O/P ← Herbivores Q/R/S ← Producers.

A. What do you predict the initial effect on the consumers of this food chain if the amount of producers is increased? Explain your reasoning.

B. What do you think the effect would be on carnivores N/O/P and herbivores Q/R/S if the predator is hunted to extinction? Explain your reasoning.